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f(x) = 1-cos(x-1) / (x-1)2
Can someone please explain how this can be done other than L'Hospital's rule? I tried but I just don't understand how. I know the answer is 1/2 though.
I tried separating to 2 limits but i got ∞ - ∞ and that is obviously wrong but I don't know what my mistake was.
Can someone please explain how this can be done other than L'Hospital's rule? I tried but I just don't understand how. I know the answer is 1/2 though.
I tried separating to 2 limits but i got ∞ - ∞ and that is obviously wrong but I don't know what my mistake was.