Limit of f(x) as it approaches from the positive side

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i. Write out the proper definition for
lim f(x)
x[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]a+

ii. Let g(x)=x-1cos(x-1) Show that for every N and any b>0 there is a point t E (0,6) so that g(t)>N

iii. Prove that for g as in (ii) we don not have
lim g(x)
x[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]0+


I'm not sure what how to do any of these... like.. for the first one, i know that the definition of a limit is for every [tex]\epsilon[/tex]>0 there is some [tex]\delta[/tex] >0 such that, for all x if 0<|x-a|< [tex]\delta[/tex], then |f(x)-L| < [tex]\epsilon[/tex]
 
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Continue with the first one. All you have to do is drop the absolute value in the delta part. Do you see why that works?
 
I can see why you drop the absolute value sign, it then becomes x>a meaning the x's approaching from the positive side.

so what about the others?


Thanks
 
It's time for you to help. If t is in (0,6) then as t->0, 1/t becomes very large, right? What does cos(1/t) do?
 
It oscillates between 1 and -1, yes. So as 1/t becomes very large...?
 
No, (1/t) becoming very big times something oscillating between -1 and 1, will, I think oscillate between -infintity and +inifinity. You don't agree, right?
 
can someone please help me out with this problem.. the person that replied to this thread never fully answered my question
 
As Dick said earlier, it's time for you to do some work. He was trying to explain what the function did without spoonfeeding you the answer. I think he lost patience.

Go back and look at what he said. If you have specific questions, ask them and someone will help you out.
 
I didn't lose patience (yet). But sketch a graph of the function. To help answer the given question think about the values of the function g(x) at x=1/(k*pi) where k is an integer.
 
o i see, as it approaches zero, the graph starts to oscillate from negative infinity to positive infinity. But I'm not sure how to answer part ii?
 
Try and answer the question I asked, what is g(1/(k*pi))?
 
well, as k increases for g(1/k*pi)...
it is negative infinity for k=1
it is positive infinity for k=2
and etc...
 
tomboi03 said:
well, as k increases for g(1/k*pi)...
it is negative infinity for k=1
it is positive infinity for k=2
and etc...

Why would that be? If x=1/(k*pi) what is cos(1/x)? k is an integer. It's not some kind of infinity.
 
well, i was referring to the actual function because the actual function is x^(-1)cos(1/x) soooo, as k increases... g(1/k*pi) is negative infinity for k=1 and positive infinity for k=2... no?
 
Negative infinity? If k=1? How does that follow? I get pi*cos(pi). That's not infinity. Express the answer in terms of k.
 
o i see, when k=1, pi*cos(pi)

i'm sorry, i haven't gotten sleep for the passed few days...

soooo, in terms of k... it would be...
kpi*cos(kpi) right?
 
Yes, cos(pi)=(-1), cos(2pi)=(+1) etc. You can also write that as kpi*(-1)^k. Does that help with question ii)? If that seems hard you are probably better off getting some sleep than trying to push on.
 
it does seems hard because I don't think I understand the wording of part ii, is it saying that all the values have a lower value than N? for any point for tE(0,b)?
 
No, it's saying that there is at least one value of t in (0,b) such that g(t)>N.
 
soooo would this be the answer to part ii?

let's say x=1/k*pi for k is an integer
When put into the function, the function would be kpi*cos(kpi)
as k increases... the functions oscillates from being positive to negative.
This function acts exactly like... kpi*(-1)^k
When x gets closer to 0, the function starts to oscillate even more from negative infinity to positive infinity.
 
Sure but that doesn't answer the question. They are asking if for any N>0 and b>0 you can find a t in (0,b) such that g(t)>N. Set t to be one of your k*pi values. You have to make sure that k is large enough (and even) so g(t)>N AND that k is large enough so that 1/(k*pi)<b.