Limit of f(x,y) as x^2+y^2→∞: Calculate & Analyze

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SUMMARY

The limit of the function $$f(x,y)=\frac{\ln(1+x^2y^2)}{x^4+y^4}$$ as $$x^2+y^2 \to \infty$$ is determined using polar coordinates. The transformation leads to the limit $$\lim_{r^2 \to \infty} \frac{\ln(1+r^4\cos^2(\theta)\sin^2(\theta))}{r^4(\cos^4(\theta)+\sin^4(\theta))}$$. Applying L'Hôpital's rule four times confirms that the limit approaches zero. Additionally, the discussion clarifies that stating $$r^2 \to \infty$$ is equivalent to $$r \to \infty$$ in limit calculations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with polar coordinates
  • Knowledge of L'Hôpital's rule
  • Basic logarithmic properties
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  • Study the application of L'Hôpital's rule in multivariable calculus
  • Explore polar coordinate transformations in limit calculations
  • Learn about logarithmic inequalities and their applications in limits
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Petrus
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$$f(x,y)=\frac{\ln(1+x^2y^2)}{x^4+y^4}$$
decide if it got a limit if $$x^2+y^2=\infty$$. if so calculate it.

well I go to polar form and we got
$$\lim_{r^2->\infty}\frac{\ln(1+r^2\cos^2(\theta)r^2\sin^2( \theta))}{r^4\cos^2(\theta)^4+r^4\sin^4(\theta)}$$
we see both approach to limit but the bottom will go a lot faster so it will be equal to zero, is this wrong to say like this?

Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
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Petrus said:
$$f(x,y)=\frac{\ln(1+x^2y^2)}{x^4+y^4}$$
decide if it got a limit if $$x^2+y^2=\infty$$. if so calculate it.

well I go to polar form and we got
$$\lim_{r^2->\infty}\frac{\ln(1+r^2\cos^2(\theta)r^2\sin^2( \theta))}{r^4\cos^2(\theta)^4+r^4\sin^4(\theta)}$$
we see both approach to limit but the bottom will go a lot faster so it will be equal to zero, is this wrong to say like this?

Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$

Hi Petrus, :)

I would use the L'Hopital's rule over the variable \(r\).
 
Sudharaka said:
Hi Petrus, :)

I would use the L'Hopital's rule over the variable \(r\).
Thanks! Now I see without finish the L'Hopital's rule as you need to do it 4 times :P we will end with a $$24\cos^2(\theta)sin^2(\theta)$$ at top and we will keep have some r at bottom which will make bottom to $$\infty$$ so it will equal to 0!:) I got one question that I would like to know.

is it allowed to say $$r^2->\infty$$ is same as $$r->\infty$$ when you calculate limits?

Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
Petrus said:
Thanks! Now I see without finish the L'Hopital's rule as you need to do it 4 times :P we will end with a $$24\cos^2(\theta)sin^2(\theta)$$ at top and we will keep have some r at bottom which will make bottom to $$\infty$$ so it will equal to 0!:) I got one question that I would like to know.

Alternatively, you can use the upper bound $\ln(1+u) \le \sqrt u$.

Btw, do you need 4 applications of l'Hospital's rule? It seems I only need 1.

is it allowed to say $$r^2->\infty$$ is same as $$r->\infty$$ when you calculate limits?

It's unusual, but I don't think it's wrong.
It fits into the definition of a limit.
 
I like Serena said:
Alternatively, you can use the upper estimate $\ln(1+u) \le \sqrt u$.

Btw, do you need 4 applications of l'Hospital's rule? It seems I only need 1.
It's unusual, but I don't think it's wrong.
It fits into the definition of a limit.
you are correct! we will be able to divide $$4r^3$$ on top and bottom! Thanks!

Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 

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