Can Every Indeterminate Form Be Evaluated?

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Not every limit that results in an indeterminate form can be evaluated to yield a finite number; some limits may be unbounded or simply do not exist. The term "evaluated" can vary in meaning, as it may refer to obtaining a numerical value or determining that a limit does not exist, which can include infinity. Techniques like L'Hopital's Rule can help evaluate certain indeterminate forms, but they are not universally applicable to all cases. Other forms, such as [1^∞], require different methods for evaluation. Ultimately, the ability to handle indeterminate forms depends on the specific situation and the techniques employed.
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Is it true that every limit that takes on an indeterminate form can be evaluated?

Is it proper to say that a limit problem has a solution if the limit does not exist?
 
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darkchild said:
Is it true that every limit that takes on an indeterminate form can be evaluated?
It depends on how you define "evaluated." If, when you attempt to evaluate a limit, you get an indeterminate form, there are techniques that you can use to either a) evaluate the limit (get a number), or b) say that the limit doesn't exist (which includes ##\infty## as the "value" of the limit).
darkchild said:
Is it proper to say that a limit problem has a solution if the limit does not exist?
We don't say that a limit problem "has a solution." Equations and inequalities have solutions. A limit can be a) a finite number, b) unbounded, or c) not exist at all.
##\lim_{x \to \infty} x^2## doesn't exist, in the sense that it is unbounded. We can also say that ##\lim_{x \to \infty} x^2 = \infty##. All this means is that ##x^2## grows large without bound as x gets large.
##\lim_{n \to \infty} (-1)^n## doesn't exist, period, because it oscillates forever between the two values, 1 and -1.
 
Mark44 said:
It depends on how you define "evaluated." If, when you attempt to evaluate a limit, you get an indeterminate form, there are techniques that you can use to either a) evaluate the limit (get a number), or b) say that the limit doesn't exist (which includes ##\infty## as the "value" of the limit).

Ok, then is it appropriate to say that every indeterminate form can be simplified?
 
darkchild said:
Ok, then is it appropriate to say that every indeterminate form can be simplified?
Like I said, when you get an indeterminate form, there are techniques (such as L'Hopital's Rule or algebraic techniques) that you can use to evaluate the limit or say that it doesn't exist. I wouldn't call this "simplifying" the limit expression, though. L'Hopital's Rule applies only to the ##[\frac{-\infty}{\infty}]## and ##[\frac 0 0]## indeterminate forms. Other indeterminate forms, such as ##[1^{\infty}]##, require different techniques.
 
It's worth pointing out that even L'Hopital can't be applied to every ##\frac\infty\infty## indeterminate form either. For example ##\frac{x+\sin(x)}{x}## as ##x\to\infty##.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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