Is {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} a Basis of W in Linear Algebra?

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The discussion centers on whether the set {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} forms a basis for the vector space W, which is spanned by {3, (sinx)^2, (cosx)^2}. The user demonstrates that W is a vector space by showing closure under addition and scalar multiplication. They argue that since (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1, the two functions are linearly independent, confirmed by calculating the Wronskian, which is non-zero for some x. Ultimately, it is concluded that {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} is indeed a basis for W, establishing its dimension as 2. The reasoning is validated by peer feedback, reinforcing the correctness of the conclusion.
discoverer02
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Linear Algebra -- Basis

I had the following problem on an exam this morning and it kind of threw me. I'd appreciate it if someone could review my answers and reasoning and let me know if I answered correctly.

W is a subset of F and spanned by {3, (sinx)^2, (cosx)^2}

a) Prove W is a vector space:

All w's that are members of W can be represented by: a3 + b(sinx)^2 + c(cosx)^2 = f(x)

From this obvious that f(x) is closed under addition and scalar multiplication, so I won't go into details.

b) Find a basis of W:

This is where I was having some problems.

a3 + b(sinx)^2 + c(cosx)^2 = 0;
since (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1, there's no linear independence, but is if I calculate the Wronskian of {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} is show's they're linearly independent. Because {3, (sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} spanned W, but 3 is a linear combination of {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2}, {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} spans W. Therefore, {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} is a basis of W, and the dimension of W is 2.

Is this valid and correct?

Thanks for the help.
 
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discoverer02 said:
Is this valid and correct?
Looks good to me. Except, I'm a little uneasy how you got the Wronskian to show linear independence.
 
Thanks for your reply.

For the Wronskian, W(x) = -Sin(2x). There's an definitely an x where W(x) is not equal to 0, so {(sinx)^2, (cosx)^2} are linearly independent.
 
Oh, right. I wasn't paying close enough attention. For some reason I imagined a 1 in there. OK, so now it looks even better to me.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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