Linear algebra proof on linearly independence

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the linear independence of a set of vectors in a vector space, given specific properties about the vectors. The original poster seeks guidance on how to initiate the proof based on the conditions provided.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers starting the proof by examining the relationships between the vectors, questioning whether the conditions imply that the coefficients in a linear combination must be zero. Some participants suggest using proof by induction, while others inquire about alternative methods such as proof by contradiction.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different proof strategies. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach, but various methods are being considered, including induction and contradiction.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that proof by induction has not been covered in their coursework, which may affect their approach to the problem.

gavin1989
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Homework Statement


Show that if vectors v1 , . . . , vk in a vector space V have the properties that v1
does not = 0, and each vi is not in the span of the preceding ones, then the vectors are linearly independent.
Conversely, show that if v1 , . . . , vk is an ordered list of linearly independent vectors, then it has the above properties.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I know it is kinda easy to prove the set is linearly independent, but with the property there, how would I start the proof? I think since v2 is not a multiple of v1, and v3 is not a multiple of vi and v2 ... as well as v1 does not = 0. so i need to show: av1+bv2+cv3...nvn=0 becuz v1 does not = 0, and vi is not the span of the preceding ones(so they are all not =0), does it mean a=b=c...=0?

thanks
 
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You would write a formal proof using induction. There's not much to prove for the k=1 case. Now assume it's true for k and show it's true for k+1. How would that proof look?
 
is proof by induction the only way to do it? my prof has not really taught how to prove by induction
 
Well, you could also do proof by contradiction. For the first case, assume the vectors are NOT linearly independent. Then prove there IS some vi that is in the span of the preceding ones.
 

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