- #1
peripatein
- 880
- 0
Hello,
I am trying to find the effective resistance of the NLR in the attachment (to the first order). It is given that IL = gVL2 + I0. I understand that this is normally achieved via ∂g/∂V at V=V0, but when I do so I get that R should be 1/(2gV0), and not 1/2g as shown in the solution. Could anyone please explain to me what it is I am doing wrong? Ought I to first determine V0 and then substitute it in 1/(2gV0)? But then, for my solution to be the same as that in the attachment, won't V0 have to be 1? I'd sincerely appreciate some guidance.
I am trying to find the effective resistance of the NLR in the attachment (to the first order). It is given that IL = gVL2 + I0. I understand that this is normally achieved via ∂g/∂V at V=V0, but when I do so I get that R should be 1/(2gV0), and not 1/2g as shown in the solution. Could anyone please explain to me what it is I am doing wrong? Ought I to first determine V0 and then substitute it in 1/(2gV0)? But then, for my solution to be the same as that in the attachment, won't V0 have to be 1? I'd sincerely appreciate some guidance.