How Do Quantum States Combine in Spin and Orbital Angular Momentum?

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The discussion focuses on the combination of quantum states involving spin and orbital angular momentum, specifically the equation |j,m + 1/2> = a|lm,+> + b|lm,->. Participants are encouraged to express spin and orbital states separately as a direct product and utilize ladder operators to derive combinations. An example is provided, illustrating the application of the ladder operator on the total angular momentum states. The solution for |3/2,1/2> is derived, emphasizing the importance of parity changes when reaching J=1/2. The thread invites further questions for clarification and assistance.
positron98
The following linear combination of states is considered in almost all quantum mechanics textbooks when they try to explain the addition of spin 1/2 and orbital angular momentum. The thing I don't understand is how the left hand side is equal to the right. Please, if you can, explain how.

|j,m + 1/2> = a|lm,+> + b|lm,-> where |+> is spin up and |-> is spin down.


Thanks,

Sam
 
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Write the spin and orbital states separately, and the total as a direct product of the two, as follows:

|J,MJ>=|L,ML>*|1/2,1/2>

Then use the ladder operators to work your way down.

Example:

L=1, S=1/2

|3/2,3/2>=|1,1>*|1/2,1/2>

Apply the ladder operator J-=L-+S-, noting that on the RHS the operator only acts on its respective ket.

J-|3/2,3/2>=(L-|1,1>)*|1/2,1/2>+|1,1>*(S-|1/2,1/2>)

and keep working down.

Try to work out the combination for |J=3/2,MJ=1/2>. If you get stuck, post what you came up with and I'll help you through it.
 
What the hell, I'm feeling ambitious!

J-|3/2,3/2>=(L-|1,1>)*|1/2,1/2>+|1,1>*(S-|1/2,1/2>)

RHS:
J-|3/2,3/2>=31/2(hbar)|3/2,1,2>

LHS:
(L-|1,1>)*|1/2,1/2>+|1,1>*(S-|1/2,1/2>)=
21/2(hbar)|1,0>*|1/2,1/2>+(hbar)|1,1>*|1/2,-1/2>

Putting them together and solving for |3/2,1/2> yields:

|3/2,1/2>=(2/3)1/2|1,0>*|1/2,1/2>+(1/3)1/2|1,1>*|1/2,-1/2>

Try the rest, and let me know if you need help.

Remember: Once you get to J=1/2, you will have a parity change. See me if you need help on that, too.
 
Thanks Tom for your time and help.

Sam
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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