Linear Fractional Transformation

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a linear fractional transformation defined on the upper half-plane, specifically examining how this transformation maps the positive imaginary axis to certain geometric figures in the Cartesian plane, such as vertical lines and semicircles. The context is rooted in complex analysis and transformations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various approaches to analyze the mapping of the imaginary axis, including parametric representations and the use of complex conjugates. Some express uncertainty about the semicircle case, while others suggest brute force methods or geometric reasoning.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different methods to understand the transformation's effects. Some have proposed specific cases and noted the clarity of certain mappings, while others are still grappling with the semicircle aspect. There is no explicit consensus, but several productive lines of reasoning are being developed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraint that the transformation must satisfy the condition ad-bc=1, and there is an emphasis on the geometric properties of the mappings, such as angle preservation and the relationship between lines and circles.

Kreizhn
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Homework Statement


Let [itex]\mathbb{H}^2 = \{z=x+iy\in \mathbb{C} | y>0 \}.[/itex] For [itex]a,b,c,d\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] satisfying ad-bc=1 define [itex]T: \mathbb{H}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{H}^2[/itex] by
[tex]T(z) = \frac{az+b}{cz+d}[/tex]

Show that T maps that positive y-axis (imaginary axis) to the vertical line [itex]x=\frac{b}{d}, x= \frac{a}{c}[/itex] or a semicircle centred on the x-axis containing both [itex](\frac{b}{d},0) \text{ and } (\frac{a}{c},0)[/itex]


The Attempt at a Solution



This seems like it should be fairly easy, but the answer has been eluding me. I began by proceeding as we would in finding the isotropy group, by taking the linear fractional map as a change of variables. Doing this we can set [itex]iy = \frac{aiy+b}{ciy+d}[/itex] and conclude that in general [itex]a=d \text{ and } b=-cy^2[/itex]. Then using ad-bc=1 we get that [itex]a^2+c^2y^2=1[/itex].

I'm wondering if we need to use anything special about the fact that we can express this mapping as
[tex]\begin{pmatrix} a&b\\ c&d \end{pmatrix} \in SL_2(\mathbb{R})[/tex]

I can't quite seem to figure out where to go from there...
 
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You are kind of off on the wrong track. Put z=i*t, t>=0. Then set Re(T(it))=x(t) and Im(T(it))=y(t). Now you have a parametric form of the curve (x(t),y(t)). It should be pretty clear that x=b/d corresponds to the c=0 case and x=a/c corresponds to the d=0 case. For the semicircle case you should be able to do brute force and show (x(t),y(t)) satisfies the equation of the given circle. I'm not sure if there is a cleverer way, but you can at least note (x(0),y(0))=(b/d,0) and limit t->infinity of (x(t),y(t))=(a/c,0).
 
Yes, I've looked at the parametric solutions and b/d and a/c are fairly clear. But the semi-circle case isn't entirely clear. Though I'm not too worried about it at this point. I'll just hand wave it.
 
Kreizhn said:
For [itex]a,b,c,d\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] satisfying ad-bc=1 define [itex]T: \mathbb{H}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{H}^2[/itex] by
[tex]T(z) = \frac{az+b}{cz+d}[/tex]

Show that T maps that positive y-axis (imaginary axis) to the vertical line [itex]x=\frac{b}{d}, x= \frac{a}{c}[/itex] or a semicircle centred on the x-axis containing both [itex](\frac{b}{d},0) \text{ and } (\frac{a}{c},0)[/itex]

How about using complex conjugates:

[tex](T(iy) - (q,0))^2 = (\frac{aiy\,+\,b}{ciy\,+\,d}\,-\,q)^2[/tex]

[tex]=\,\frac{(aiy\,+\,b)\,-\,q(ciy\,+\,d)}{ciy\,+\,d}\,\frac{(-aiy\,+\,b)\,-\,q(-ciy\,+\,d)}{-ciy\,+\,d}[/tex]

= … :smile:
 
Kreizhn said:
Yes, I've looked at the parametric solutions and b/d and a/c are fairly clear. But the semi-circle case isn't entirely clear. Though I'm not too worried about it at this point. I'll just hand wave it.

Here's an argument assuming you know these transformations map lines and circles to lines and circles AND are angle preserving. T maps the x-axis to the x-axis. For T(t)=(x(t),y(t)), T(0)=(b/d,0), T(infinity)=(a/c,0). So T(t) is a curve passing through T(0) and T(infinity). But since the y-axis is orthogonal to the x-axis, the curve T(t) is also orthogonal to the x-axis at T(0). That's enough geometric facts to force it to be the circle you described.
 

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