MHB Linearization of sqrt(x+1) +sin x at x=0

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The linearization of the function f(x) = √(x+1) + sin(x) at x=0 is L(0) = (3/2)x + 1. This result combines the individual linearizations of √(x+1) and sin(x) at the same point. The linearization of √(x+1) at x=0 is (1/2)x + 1, while the linearization of sin(x) at x=0 is x. The overall linearization is derived by summing the slopes and constant terms of the individual functions. Thus, the linearization effectively reflects the behavior of the combined functions near x=0.
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Find the linearization of $f(x) = \sqrt{x+1} +\sin{ x} $ at $x=0$

$L(0)=\frac{3x} {2} + 1$

how is it related to the individual linearization of
$\sqrt{x+1}$ and $\sin{x} $ at $x=0$ ?

$L_{\sqrt{x+1}} (0 ) = \frac{x} {2}+1 $
 
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Suppose we are given:

$$f(x)=g(x)+h(x)$$

The linearization of $g(x)$ at $x=a$ is found by observing the point $(a,g(a))$ is on the line, and the slope is $g'(a)$, thus the linearization of $g$ at $x=a$ is:

$$y_g=g'(a)(x-a)+g(a)$$

And thus, similarly we have:

$$y_h=h'(a)(x-a)+h(a)$$

And also:

$$y_f=f'(a)(x-a)+f(a)$$

But, we know:

$$f(a)=g(a)+h(a)$$ and $$f'(a)=g'(a)+h'(a)$$

And so we may state:

$$y_f=(g'(a)+h'(a))(x-a)+g(a)+h(a)=(g'(a)(x-a)+g(a))+(h'(a)(x-a)+h(a))=y_g+y_h$$

So, we see that the linearization of $f$ is the sum of the linearizations of $g$ and $h$.
 
So
$1+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2}$

Since

$L_{sinx}(0)=1 $
 
karush said:
So
$1+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2}$

Since

$L_{sinx}(0)=1 $

No, we find:

$$L_{\sin(x)}(0)=x$$

and:

$$L_{\sqrt{x+1}}(0)=\frac{1}{2}x+1$$

Hence:

$$L_{f}(0)=x+\frac{1}{2}x+1=\frac{3}{2}x+1$$
 
OK, I was just adding slopes.
 
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