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My confusion is that the longitudinal resistivity also goes to zero. In reading the literature, one can often see in the same paper, plots of ro_xx and sigma_xx as functions of magnetic field, and both show the zeros at the same fields! Perhaps I do not understand the physics behind:

sigma_xx = ro_xx / (ro_xx^2 + ro_xy^2)

Which clearly explains ro_xx = 0 implying sigma_xx. But fundamentally, how can resistivity AND conductivity be zero? Thanks for any light someone can shed.