Apriori -- before taking any of the postulates of special relativity into account -- we might say that the lorentz transformations between two frames K and K', where K' is moving w. speed v along the x-axis of K, is given by(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

$$\vec{x}' = F(\vec x, t)$$

and

$$t' = G(\vec x, t).$$

Now, i want to conclude that ##y' = y## and ##z'=z## as well as ##x' = F(x,t)##. I believe this follows form homogeniety of space and time, but I do now know exactly how to make the argument.

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# Lorentz transformation independence of axis orthogonal to velocity

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