Man's halt of interracial marriage sparks outrage
http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20091017/ap_on_re_us/us_interracial_rebuff
I believe the state reserves the right to regulate contracts like marriage within their borders. The Federal government ensures, in theory, that the state, or county/town/city governments therein, do not discriminate against individuals.
How can the states have a right to regulate if the regulation is conditional on the central governments ok? It seems to me that they only have an imaginary right to regulate, since it ultimately depends on the central governments concurrence to have any affect. One thing I am having trouble answering is, since it was the states that gave birth to the central government how can the central government now have total control of what happens in the states? It seems to me it is kind of like an employer hiring an employee and then allowing the employee to tell the employer how to run things.
It's interesting to see the debate about State's rights/jurisdiction vs Federal jurisdiction in light of the context of a local JoP who willfully discriminates based on peoples' race. Of course, biracial couples can choose an alternative.[/
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The JoP in the article has been voted in by the community he is serving for the last 34 years, and in that time no one has even thought bad enough of what he is doing to run against him nor has anyone in the community tried to have him removed. In the article it states that since he was voted in it is his duty to represent every one in his area, I would argue that it is his duty to represent those that voted him in and it seems they have been content with what he was doing or he wouldn't have served for 34 years. By using the authors line of reasoning I guess we will be seeing tax breaks coming from democrats and gay rights legislation coming from republicans, although I won't hold my breath till that happens since I understand that people that are voted for are serving the voters that voted for them and not the ones that didnt.
This kind of situation is the whole point of the states right argument, a locality can vote to run the locality any way it seems fit but it will be contained to that locality allowing people to leave and find another locality that believes similarily as they do. When the discrimination comes from the central government, where are they going to go? Affirmative action is a racist law(promotes one race over another based on nothing but race) and it is a product of the central government so it affects everyone in the US, yet this judges actions only affects a very small segment of one state, leaving the majority of the state un touched as well as the other 49 states. So which is the better option, neither will completely eliminate discrimination, locallized discrimination or nationalized?