Lukasiewicz-Slupencki three-valued calculus

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SUMMARY

Slupencki expanded the three-valued Lukasiewicz calculus L3 to L3S in 1936 to achieve functional completeness by introducing the functor T(.), defined as T(x) = 1 for all x in {0,1,2}, along with two axioms: Tx⇒~Tx and ~Tx⇒Tx. The discussion highlights the implications of these axioms, particularly the relationship between a proposition and its negation, leading to the conclusion that Tx⇔~Tx does not present a contradiction within this logical framework. The conversation also touches on the suspension of classical laws of non-contradiction and the excluded middle, which were foundational to Lukasiewicz's exploration of multivalent logics.

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nomadreid
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(The "L"'s in the two names should have lines through them, sorry).
Slupencki expanded (in 1936) the three-valued Lukasiewicz calculus L3
to L3S in order to make it functionally complete. He did this by adding functor T(.), where T(x) = 1 for all x in {0,1,2}, and two axioms: Tx⇒~Tx and ~Tx⇒Tx. Since val(x)= val(~x) if val(x) = 1, these axioms would seem OK, but what I don't get is why we cannot say then that Tx⇔~Tx poses an unacceptable contradiction. :(
 
Let me put the question more simply, without reference to a particular system. Can you have a consistent (many-valued) logical system such that there are propositions such that the valuation of the proposition and the valuation of its negation are the same?
 
nomadreid said:
(The "L"'s in the two names should have lines through them, sorry).
Slupencki expanded (in 1936) the three-valued Lukasiewicz calculus L3
to L3S in order to make it functionally complete. He did this by adding functor T(.), where T(x) = 1 for all x in {0,1,2}, and two axioms: Tx⇒~Tx and ~Tx⇒Tx. Since val(x)= val(~x) if val(x) = 1, these axioms would seem OK, but what I don't get is why we cannot say then that Tx⇔~Tx poses an unacceptable contradiction. :(
I'm not seeing where the contradiction is. Tx is always 1, therefore ~Tx is always 1 [by the definition of negation val(~x) = 2-x], therefore Tx ⇔ ~Tx is just 1 ⇔ 1.
 
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Thanks for the reply, TeethWhitener. Start with a tautology, such as T⇔T&T. This becomes (applying T⇔~T) T⇔T&~T. Ditto for getting ~T ⇔T&~T. From T∨~T (and A∨A⇔A), we get T&~T. Contradiction.
Also: If T⇔~T is allowed, then how would one come to the conclusion that Russell's paradox poses a contradiction?
 
First of all, A&~A is not, in general, a contradiction in 3-valued logic. To see this, plug in the truth value 1 for A (from the set {0, 1, 2}). You get val(~A)=1, val(A&~A)=1. Suspension of the laws of non-contradiction and the excluded middle were part of Lukasiewicz's original motivation for exploring multivalent logics. Secondly, T is not a proposition. T(x) is a unary operator that takes any proposition x and assigns it the truth value of 1.
 
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Thanks, TeethWhitener. I plead guilty to both counts. I now am clearer on the subject.
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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