Magnetic Field (Hollow Copper Pipe)

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the magnetic induction B in a hollow copper pipe with inner radius a and outer radius b, carrying a uniform current I. Using Ampere's law, the magnetic induction is determined for three regions: (i) B = 0 for r < a, (ii) B = (μ₀ I r) / (2 π (b - a)²) for a < r < b, and (iii) B = (μ₀ I) / (2 π r) for r > b. A correction is noted for part (ii), emphasizing the need to accurately calculate the enclosed current I' based on the cross-sectional area.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Ampere's Law in integral form
  • Knowledge of magnetic induction and its calculations
  • Familiarity with the properties of copper as a conductor
  • Basic concepts of current distribution in cylindrical geometries
NEXT STEPS
  • Review the derivation of Ampere's Law and its applications in cylindrical coordinates
  • Study the magnetic properties of materials, focusing on diamagnetism and conductivity
  • Explore the concept of enclosed current in varying cross-sectional areas
  • Investigate the implications of magnetic induction in practical applications, such as electromagnet design
USEFUL FOR

Students studying electromagnetism, physics educators, and engineers working with electromagnetic systems will benefit from this discussion.

roam
Messages
1,265
Reaction score
12

Homework Statement



The figure below shows a long, hollow copper pipe.


The inner radius of the pipe is a and the outer radius is b. A uniform current I flows in the walls of the pipe. You may assume that the permeability of copper is the same as free space, that is, ##\mu_0##. Use the integral form of Ampere's law to find:

(i) The magnetic induction B for r<a

(ii) The magnetic induction B for a<r<b

(iii) The magnetic induction B for r>b

Homework Equations



Ampere's law in integral form

The Attempt at a Solution



(i) Since I enclosed is 0

##\oint B . dl = B 2 \pi r = \mu_0 I \implies B=0##

(ii) ##B 2 \pi r = \mu_0 I##

Here I think the I enclosed is ##\frac{I'}{I}= \frac{\pi r^2}{\pi (b-a)^2} \implies I' = \frac{I r^2}{(b-a)^2}##. So

##B 2 \pi r = \mu_0 \frac{I r^2}{(b-a)^2} \implies B= \frac{\mu_0 I r}{2 \pi (b-a)^2}##.

(iii) For the magnetic induction outside

##B 2 \pi r = \mu_0 I \implies B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r}##

Is my working correct? I'm mostly doubtful about (i) and (ii). For (ii) shouldn't B be equal to zero inside the material, since copper is diamagnetic?

Thanks.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Looks like your answer are correct.
 
(b) is incorrect.

Let r = b, then your expression gives B = μ0Ib/2π(b - a)2
whereas you know the answer should be the same as for part c which you got right.

You need to look at this part carefully. Hint: the difference in cross-sectional area between radii r and a is not π(r - a)2, r > a. What is it?
 

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
654
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
25
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K