High School Mapping wave forms to sphere, does wave form y=0 have a reflection?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of wave forms, specifically addressing whether the wave form y=0 has a reflection and the conditions necessary for a wave form to possess an inverse. Participants clarify that y=0 does not have an inverse due to the absence of corresponding -y values. The conversation shifts to the concept of reflection about the x-axis, where y is transformed to -y, particularly in the context of antipodean pairs on a sphere. Ultimately, it is concluded that while y=0 lacks an inverse, it does have a reflection.

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  • Understanding of wave form properties
  • Knowledge of mathematical concepts of reflection and inversion
  • Familiarity with the Cartesian coordinate system
  • Basic concepts of spherical geometry
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  • Research the mathematical properties of wave forms and their inverses
  • Explore the concept of reflection in mathematical functions
  • Study antipodean pairs and their significance in spherical geometry
  • Learn about the implications of continuity in wave forms
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TL;DR
Continuous mapping of all continuous wave forms to the surface of a sphere
Zero does not have an inverse.
And y=0 does not have an inverse.
Does the wave form y=0 for all x have an inverse?
 
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What conditions should an inverse of a 'wave form' fulfil ?
:wideeyed:

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BvU said:
What conditions should an inverse of a 'wave form' fulfil ?
:wideeyed:

##\ ##
My first thought is inverse polarity, but if the inverse wave form comprises -y values, any y=0 wouldn't have an inverse -y, so maybe the inverse wave form would not be strictly continuous? That seems asymmetric with respect to inversion...

edit-- I'm using the wrong term, inversion swaps the range and domain, what I am asking about is reflection about the x axis... y -> -y
This is in the context of antipodean pairs on the sphere
 
Last edited:
More checking, but it looks like zero does have reflection...
 

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