How Does Friction Affect Train Acceleration?

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Friction significantly impacts train acceleration by determining the maximum force that can be applied without causing wheel slip. The maximum acceleration is calculated using the friction force, which is influenced by the coefficient of static friction and the train's weight. When the force exerted by the engine exceeds the friction force, the wheels will spin without gaining traction. The relationship between rotational and translational energy is crucial, as higher friction allows for better energy conversion, enhancing acceleration. Ultimately, the maximum acceleration occurs just before the wheels begin to slip, governed by the static friction coefficient.
Claus Berner
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Homework Statement


What is the maximum acceleration the train can achieve?

Engine effect=6500kW
μ(Friction Coefficient (between rails and wheels))=0.45
g=9.82N/kg
m(Train weight)=120,000kg
α=0

Homework Equations


Fμ=Fn
Fn=cos(α)*m*g
a=F/m

The Attempt at a Solution


We've used the equations for objects, to determine the amount of force is needed to move. F>Fμ if the object is to move.

But for an object, a higher friction coefficient means the need for more force to pull. Therefore, a higher friction at constant force, means lower acceleration.
But for vehicles, a higher friction means a higher acceleration, because it can convert more of it's rotational energy to translational energy.

I asked my teacher, but he explained that when the train is moving the friction force, must be the same as the trains forward force. Therefore the maximum acceleration becomes, the friction force divided by mass. a=Fμ/m.

But in my head that's a very oversimplified explanation, i cannot see the correlation to rotational mechanics and the friction between rails and wheels. In my head the friction describes how much of the engine power can be converted to translational energy, and that the limit of the force is due to the fact that maybe if you use more force than the friction force, then the wheels will simply spin without grip.

I feel like I'm missing something which binds these things together, but my teacher refused to tell me, or he didn't know :/
 
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Claus Berner said:
In my head the friction describes how much of the engine power can be converted to translational energy, and that the limit of the force is due to the fact that maybe if you use more force than the friction force, then the wheels will simply spin without grip.
Yes, if the engine turns the wheels more forcefully than the coefficient of static friction can support then the wheels will spin. Their "grip" on the rails is limited by the coefficient of static friction.

Once the wheels start slipping, they will not spin completely without grip. This is when the coefficient of kinetic (or "dynamic") friction comes into play. The force between slipping wheels and rails is limited by the coefficient of dynamic friction multiplied by the normal force. The coefficient of dynamic friction will not be larger than the coefficient of static friction. Accordingly, the force from dynamic friction will not be larger than the limiting force of static friction.

The maximum acceleration will be achieved when the wheels are being turned as forcefully as possible, just barely below the threshold of beginning to slip.

Note: In this problem, we are given only a "coefficient of friction". One can assume either that the coefficients of static and of dynamic friction are both 0.45 or that the coefficient of static friction is 0.45 and that the coefficient of dynamic friction is smaller. Both assumptions yield the same answer.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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