# Maximum likelihood estimator of binominal distribution

$$L(x_1,...,x_n;p)=\Pi_{i=1}^{n}(\stackrel{n}{x_i}) p^{x_i}(1-p)^{n-x_i}$$

Correct so far?

The solution tells me to skip the $$\Pi$$:

$$L(x_1,...,x_n;p)=(\stackrel{n}{x}) p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}$$

This is contradictory to all the examples in my book. Why?

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