Undergrad Mean value of the nuclear tensor operator

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The mean value of the nuclear tensor operator S12, defined in terms of the spin operators of two nucleons, is shown to be zero when evaluated in all directions r. The integral of the scalar product of the spin operators, J(S1, S2), is determined to be proportional to the scalar product of the spins, leading to the conclusion that it can be expressed as a constant multiplied by the mean value of the dot product of the spins. By evaluating this integral, it is established that the mean value of the tensor operator is equivalent to the mean value of the scalar product of the spins. Thus, the proof demonstrates that the mean value of S12 is indeed zero.
kvothe18
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Does anyone know how can you prove that the mean value of the tensor operator S12 in all directions r is zero?

S12 : http://prntscr.com/j3gn40

where s1, s2 are the spin operators of two nucleons.
 
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It is linear in the individual spins. You can split one into an orthogonal and a parallel component (relative to the other). I would expect that it is easy to show based on that.
 
kvothe18 said:
Does anyone know how can you prove that the mean value of the tensor operator S12 in all directions r is zero?

S12 : http://prntscr.com/j3gn40

where s1, s2 are the spin operators of two nucleons.
\langle \frac{3}{r^{2}} ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{1}) ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} ) \rangle = \frac{1}{4 \pi} \int d \Omega \frac{3}{r^{2}} \ ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{1} ) ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} ) = \frac{3}{4 \pi} \int d \Omega \ ( \hat{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{1}) ( \hat{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} ) . Now, the integral J (S_{1} , S_{2}) \equiv \int d \Omega \left( \hat{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{1} \right) \left( \hat{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} \right) \ , is scalar and linear in \vec{S}_{1} and \vec{S}_{2}. So it must be proportional to the scalar product \vec{S}_{1} \cdot \vec{S}_{2}, i.e., J (S_{1} , S_{2}) = C \ \vec{S}_{1} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} . To find the constant C, consider the special case \vec{S}_{1} = \vec{S}_{2} = \hat{z}: C \ \hat{z} \cdot \hat{z} = J (\hat{z} , \hat{z}) = \int d \Omega \left( \hat{r} \cdot \hat{z}\right)^{2} = \int d \Omega \cos^{2} \theta . This gives you C = \frac{4 \pi}{3} and, therefore, J(S_{1},S_{2}) = \frac{4 \pi}{3} \vec{S}_{1} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} = \frac{4 \pi}{3}\langle \vec{S}_{1} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} \rangle . \ \ \ \ (2) The last equality follows because \langle \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B} \rangle = \frac{1}{4 \pi} \int d \Omega \ \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B} = \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}.

Substituting (2) in the first equation of this post, you find

\langle \frac{3}{r^{2}} ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{1} ) ( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{S}_{2}) \rangle = \langle ( \vec{S}_{1} \cdot \vec{S}_{2} ) \rangle .
 
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