Mean Value Theorem for Integrals: Does it Hold?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the applicability of the Mean Value Theorem for integrals, particularly in the context of functions that are continuous but not differentiable. Participants explore whether the theorem holds under these conditions and examine various examples and counterexamples.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if the Mean Value Theorem for integrals holds when the function F(x) is continuous but not differentiable.
  • Another participant suggests constructing counterexamples using discontinuous functions to demonstrate that the theorem may not hold.
  • Some participants discuss the implications of functions that do not achieve every value between f(a) and f(b), which could affect the validity of the theorem.
  • A participant provides a detailed argument asserting that continuity guarantees the existence of a maximum and minimum, thus supporting the theorem's validity under continuity.
  • Another participant argues that if f is not continuous, then F cannot be differentiable, implying that the theorem does not hold in general cases.
  • Examples of continuous but non-differentiable functions are presented, such as a specific series involving cosine functions, challenging the understanding of continuity and differentiability.
  • Further examples are provided to illustrate that continuity does not imply differentiability, including a sequence of functions converging uniformly to a function whose derivative does not exist.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the Mean Value Theorem for integrals holds for continuous but non-differentiable functions. There is no consensus, as some argue for its validity under continuity, while others present counterexamples that suggest it may not apply.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific mathematical properties and examples, indicating that the discussion involves complex concepts related to continuity, differentiability, and the conditions under which the Mean Value Theorem can be applied. There are unresolved assumptions regarding the nature of the functions discussed.

Karlisbad
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Let be [tex]F(x)=\int dx f(x)[/tex] my question is if F(x) is continuous (but not differentiable ) does the Mean-value theorem for integrals hold?..

a<c<b and [tex]f(c)(b-a)=\int_{a}^{b} dx f(x)[/tex] ?... :rolleyes: :confused:
 
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Have you even bothered to try to think up some examples to see that this cannot hold? Just take some easy discontinuous f and construct counter examples.
 
Try thinking about functions that can't achieve every value possible between f(a) and f(b) (which is basically the requirement needed to ensure f(c) can take on the right value)
 
How can a function be continuous and not differentiable? The definition of continuity hold that the function has limits such as any value of y in the interval [a,b] could be represented as the funciton of a point (be it rational or irrational). This being said, it also holds that there are intervals where the function is strictly monotonously increasing, decreasing or stale. This last point, proves us that there is no bad behaviour after a certain point when evaluating the limit that the derivative is. Anyway have you checked a good proof of the mean value theorem? If the function is continuous, it certainly has a maximum and a minimum on a closed interval. Say Max {f(x)} = M
and Min {f(x)} = m. If you we say the integral between a and b of the function is i, we have

m(b-a) < i < M(b-a)

Which needs no proof since it goes without saying. We then have,

m < i/(b-a) < M

By continuity of the function, i/b-a must be one of the value f(x) assumes between in the interval [a,b]. We can thus express it as f(e).

f(e) = i/(b-a)
i = f(e)(b-a)

Which is the proof of the Mean Value Theorem. All you need is certainty of continuity.
 
f is not continuous. If it were F would be differentiable. So what was the point? It is trivial to find examples for Karlisbad/eljose/lokofer that demonstrate that it is false in general. Suppose that f is a function that only takes the value 0 and 1, then the condition states that the integral of f over any interval is the length of the interval, which can only happen if f is 0 on a set of measure zero, so just pick an f that is not zero on set of strictly positive measure. If that is too much measure theory then just consider f to be the most elementary discontinuous function, the Heaviside step function.
 
Last edited:
"How can a function be continuous and not differentiable?"
try this one:
[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\cos((n!)^{2}x)}{n!}[/tex]

This is continuous, and non-differentiable at every point.
 
Werg22 said:
How can a function be continuous and not differentiable? The definition of continuity hold that the function has limits such as any value of y in the interval [a,b] could be represented as the funciton of a point (be it rational or irrational). This being said, it also holds that there are intervals where the function is strictly monotonously increasing, decreasing or stale.
No, it doesn't. Arildno's example is not monotone on any interval.
 
Just to add another example:
In general, one cannot conclude anything about the derivative from the function itself. This is basically what you could call the "un-smoothing" property of the derivative.

Here's another example:
Let a sequence of functions be defined as:
[tex]f_{n}(x)=\frac{\sin(n^{2}x)}{n}[/tex]
Note that we have [tex]f_{n}(x)\to{f}(x)\equiv{0}[/tex] UNIFORMLY.
However, a limiting function of the derivatives of fn wrt. to x doesn't exist.

Not even the strict requirement of uniform continuity is sufficient to say anything about the existence of derivatives.
 

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