Mean Value Theorem, Rolle's Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves two runners starting a race simultaneously and finishing in a tie, with the goal of proving that they must have the same speed at some point during the race. The context is rooted in the Mean Value Theorem and Rolle's Theorem, focusing on the relationship between the position functions of the runners.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the Mean Value Theorem, particularly the conditions under which it applies, such as continuity and differentiability. There are attempts to clarify the implications of the theorem regarding the existence of a point where the derivative is zero.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the application of the Mean Value Theorem and addressing misunderstandings about the conditions of the theorem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the interpretation of the derivative and its implications for the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the original poster's uncertainty about their reasoning and the constraints of learning in an online class environment, which may affect their ability to express their understanding clearly.

phillyolly
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Homework Statement



Two runners start a race at the same time and finish in a tie.
Prove that at some time during the race they have the same
speed. [Hint: Consider f(t)=g(t)-h(t), where g and h are
the position functions of the two runners.]

Homework Equations



If this is ever helpful:
Mean Value Theorem:
f ' (c)= [f(b)-f(a)]/[b-a]


The Attempt at a Solution



We know that if a function f is continuous on an interval [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b), and f(a) = f(b) = 0, then there is some point c in (a,b) such that f'(c) = 0.

The velocity equation is
f'(t)=g'(t)-h'(t)
g^' (t)-h(t)=0
g'(t)=h'(t)


I am not at all sure I am doing it correctly - my solution is too simple.
 
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You've got it right and too simple but you aren't expressing yourself very well either. The MVT tells you there is a c such that f'(c)=0. It doesn't tell you f'(t)=0 for all t. Explain that to me again.
 
Hi, I don't know how to explain your question. Because I take Calculus I as an online class, I have nobody to explain this to me. May you please help me out to understand this problem?
 
phillyolly said:
The velocity equation is
f'(t)=g'(t)-h'(t)
g^' (t)-h(t)=0
g'(t)=h'(t)

He's talking about here, where you seem to assert the derivative is zero for every value of t.
 
Apply the mean value theorem to the problem. If the start time is a and the finish time is b, what does the mean value theorem tell you? Start with the basics, why are f(a)=0 and f(b)=0?
 
Hi! I got the answer!

At time t=0, f(start_time) = 0 because at the starting point, both runners are at the same spot. Similarly, at the finishing line, f(finish_time) = 0 because in the end the runners finish tied. Knowing that in the Rolle's theorem at some time c between 0 and the finish time, f'(c) = 0, we can conclude that at some time c, the difference in their velocities is 0, which means that at time c, they essentially have the same speed.
 
Thank you a lot for your support.
 

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