Measure theory and the symmetric difference

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the inequality d(A,B) ≤ d(A,C) + d(C,B) in the context of measure theory, specifically within a finite positive measure space (X,M,μ) where μ({x}) > 0 for all x in X. Participants suggest using the property A Δ B ⊆ A Δ C ∪ C Δ B to establish the proof. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding set algebra and the definitions of symmetric difference, leading to the conclusion that the inequality holds due to the properties of measures in finite spaces.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theory concepts, particularly finite positive measure spaces.
  • Familiarity with symmetric difference notation (A Δ B).
  • Basic knowledge of set algebra and Venn diagrams.
  • Proficiency in manipulating inequalities involving measures.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of symmetric differences in measure theory.
  • Learn about the implications of finite positive measure spaces on set operations.
  • Explore detailed proofs of inequalities involving measures, such as the triangle inequality.
  • Review Venn diagram applications in set theory to visualize relationships between sets.
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in mathematics, particularly those focusing on measure theory, as well as researchers and practitioners seeking to deepen their understanding of set operations and inequalities in finite measure spaces.

nyq_guru
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Hi,

I'm currently trying to teach myself some measure theory and I'm stuck on trying to show the following:

Let (X,M,\mu) be a finite positive measure space such that \mu({x})>0 \forall x \in X . Set d(A,B) = \mu(A \Delta B), A,B \in X. Prove that d(A,B) \leq d(A,C) + d(C,B) .

Could someone perhaps help me on the way? I've tried various approaches (mostly "brute force" with different re-writings of both sides of the inequality) but every time there is some term left that doesn't quite fit. Feels like it's actually quite easy and that I'm just missing the point.

Thanks in advance, oh and btw if this does not come out in the correct tex format, how do I achieve that? My first time here
 
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Have you tried proving that A \Delta B \subset A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B?
 
morphism said:
Have you tried proving that A \Delta B \subset A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B?

Actually no, but I think I see where you're getting at. If I can prove this, it would imply that \mu(A \Delta B) \leq \mu((A \Delta C) \cup (C \Delta B)).
Now I tried to prove the relation you mentioned, but I can't seem to do it. The expression for the A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B is to nasty for me this early in the morning, especially since I'm still not comfortable enough with set algebra. However, with Venn diagrams it is easy to see.
Now, if this relation is proved, I simply use that (since it is a finite positive space) \mu((A \Delta C) \cup (C \Delta B)) = \mu(A \Delta C) + \mu(C \Delta B) - \mu((A \Delta C) \cap (C \Delta B)). Since the last term is >0, it is clear that the inequality holds, right?
 
Haven't had your coffee yet? I'm not sure what you mean by "set algebra" but I would just go back to the basic definitions: to prove
A \Delta B \subset A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B

If x is in A \Delta B then x is in A but not in B. Now look at two cases:

case 1: x is in C. Then x is in C \Delta B

case 2: x is NOT in C. Then x is in A \Delta C
 
HallsofIvy said:
Haven't had your coffee yet? I'm not sure what you mean by "set algebra" but I would just go back to the basic definitions: to prove
A \Delta B \subset A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B

If x is in A \Delta B then x is in A but not in B. Now look at two cases:

case 1: x is in C. Then x is in C \Delta B

case 2: x is NOT in C. Then x is in A \Delta C

Now forgive me if I'm wrong, but doesn't x \in A \Delta B imply that x is in either A or B, but x \notin A \cap B?
From drawing a Venn diagram for A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B I believe that this relation can be written (A \cup B \cup C) \ (A \cap B \cap C). If this is correct, obviously any x \in A \Delta B will also be in A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B. However, if this is the case I would like to show that A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B = (A \cup B \cup C) \ (A \cap B \cap C), not just draw a diagram.
Using the basic definitions would yield that x \in A \Delta B if x \in A or x \in B but x \notin A \cap B. Similarly, x \in A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B implies that (if the equality earlier is true) that x \in A, x \in B or x \in C but x \notin A \cap B \cap C, which I believe shows that A \Delta B \subset A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B
 
HallsofIvy's proof is almost complete. He showed that A \backslash B \subset C \Delta B \cup A \Delta C. Symmetrically, we have that B \backslash A \subset C \Delta A \cup B \Delta C, and the result now follows.
 
Something went seriously wrong with my last post, everything just became a blur. The expressions aren't even in the correct places. Oh well, I'll fix it when I get home. morphism, thanks for pointing out that way to complete the proof. I still can't let go of the thought of rewriting the expression for A \Delta C \cup C \Delta B though :-).
 
You are right. I completely missed that: I was thinking "difference" rather than "symmetric difference". And I had had my coffee!
 

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