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This question is inspired by ephen wilb's https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/quantum-theory-of-others.816818/#post-5130620.
In Bohmian Mechanics, everything is exactly as in classical probability theory. How, from the point of view of BM, does the measurement problem arise? Since the measurement problem can arise from a purely classical probability theory, can BM indicate an analogue of the measurement problem in other fields (eg. biology, economics) that use classical probability?
In Bohmian Mechanics, everything is exactly as in classical probability theory. How, from the point of view of BM, does the measurement problem arise? Since the measurement problem can arise from a purely classical probability theory, can BM indicate an analogue of the measurement problem in other fields (eg. biology, economics) that use classical probability?