This question is inspired by ephen wilb's https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/quantum-theory-of-others.816818/#post-5130620. In Bohmian Mechanics, everything is exactly as in classical probability theory. How, from the point of view of BM, does the measurement problem arise? Since the measurement problem can arise from a purely classical probability theory, can BM indicate an analogue of the measurement problem in other fields (eg. biology, economics) that use classical probability?