Möbius transformation, 3 points

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The discussion focuses on finding a Möbius transformation that maps specific points: 0 to -1, 1 to infinity, and infinity to 1. The transformation is expressed as w = f(z) = (az + b) / (cz + d), and several key properties of Möbius transformations are highlighted, including their one-to-one mapping of the extended complex plane and their conformal nature except at poles. The original poster struggles with the presence of infinity in their calculations but eventually realizes that analyzing limits simplifies the problem. They acknowledge the existence of a formula for such transformations but aim to solve it without relying on it. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the behavior of functions at infinity and the mapping of lines and circles.
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Homework Statement


Find the Möbius transformation that maps
0 -> -1
1 -> infinity
infinity -> 1


Homework Equations


w = f(z) = \frac{az + b}{cz+d}

Theorem:

Let f be any Möbius transformation. Then

i, f can be expressed as the composition of a finite sequence of translations, magnifications, rotations and inversions.

ii, f maps the extended complex plane one-to-one onto intself.

iii, f maps the class of circles and lines to itself

iv, f is conformal at every point except its pole


The Attempt at a Solution


My first idea was to attempt to solve it as a normal system of eq's but that quickly falls apart due to infinity being there. Been toying with the idea of using the fact that lines will map to lines or circles but don't quite know how to apply it.

And yes I know there's a formula for these exact types of questions but it's in the next sub chapter, book figures it's possible to do without knowing that. Just can't for the life of me figure it out.
 
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Start with 0 -> -1. This gives you relation between b and d. Then simply think in limits, when f(z) -> inf, f(z) -> 1?
 
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Got it to work, was a bit too caught up with the fact that infinity was defined as a point (which I need to read up on more) which just messed with me. Just looking at the limits it wasn't actually bad at all.

Thanks.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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