Multi-electron eigenfunction problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter RIPCLB
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Eigenfunction
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the orthogonality relation of nondegenerate bound eigenfunctions \(\psi_j(x)\) and \(\psi_i(x)\) that satisfy the time-independent Schrödinger equation for the same potential \(V(x)\). The key equation to establish is \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi_j^*(x) \psi_i(x) dx = 0\). Participants emphasize the need to demonstrate this orthogonality in a general sense rather than relying on specific eigenfunction examples. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding the properties of eigenstates and operators in quantum mechanics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the time-independent Schrödinger equation
  • Familiarity with the concept of eigenfunctions and eigenvalues
  • Knowledge of quantum mechanics operators
  • Basic calculus skills for evaluating integrals
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of eigenfunctions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the implications of nondegeneracy in quantum systems
  • Explore the mathematical proof of orthogonality for different potential functions
  • Investigate the role of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics
USEFUL FOR

Students of quantum mechanics, physicists working with wave functions, and educators teaching advanced topics in quantum theory will benefit from this discussion.

RIPCLB
Messages
9
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


"Prove that any two different nondegenerate bound eigenfunctions [itex]\psi[/itex]j(x) and [itex]\psi[/itex]i(x) that are solutions to the time-independent Schroedinger equation for the same potential V(x) obey the orthogonality relation

[itex]\int[/itex]-∞ [itex]\psi[/itex]j*[itex]\psi[/itex]i(x)dx=0

"


Homework Equations


I believe I have to find equations for which both eigenfunctions are solutions?


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm lost on how to get the problem started. I cannot think of any eigenfunctions to use. I might be putting more thought to it than I need to though.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, the key is that they are eigenfunctions. But I think you're supposed to prove the orthogonality in the general sense, rather than use specific examples of eigenfunctions.

Suppose that [itex]\psi_a(x)[/itex] and [itex]\psi_b(x)[/itex] are eigenstates of the operator [itex]O[/itex], with corresponding eigenvalues [itex]a[/itex] and [itex]b[/itex] respectively.

[tex]O \psi_a(x) = a \psi_a(x)[/tex]
[tex]O \psi_b(x) = b \psi_b(x)[/tex]

Now consider each of these cases:

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} [O \psi_a(x)]^* \psi_b(x)dx = \ \ ?[/tex]

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi^*_a(x) [O \psi_b(x)]dx = \ \ ?[/tex]

I'll let you take it from there. :wink:
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K