Multi-Variable / Dimension Fourier Transform

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the Multi-Variable Fourier Transform, specifically the decomposition of functions like f(x, y) into components such as f1(y, v) and e^{i x v}, f2(x, u) and e^{i u y}, or both simultaneously as f3(u, v) and e^{i (x v + u y)}. Participants seek proof of the existence and uniqueness of these decompositions and inquire about the impact of variable order on the integration process. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding how individual one-dimensional decompositions interact to reconstruct the original function, referencing Fubini's theorem for insights on integration order.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier Transform concepts
  • Familiarity with complex numbers and exponential functions
  • Knowledge of multi-variable calculus
  • Awareness of Fubini's theorem and its implications
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the existence and uniqueness theorems for Fourier transforms
  • Study the implications of Fubini's theorem in multi-variable integration
  • Explore advanced topics in Fourier analysis, including convergence issues
  • Examine practical applications of multi-variable Fourier transforms in signal processing
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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers interested in advanced Fourier analysis, particularly those working with multi-variable functions and their applications in various scientific fields.

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Multi-Variable / Dimension Fourier Decomposition

Say we have f(x, y). We can Fourier decompose it in terms of f1(y, v) and e^{\ x\ v}, f2(x, u) and e^{\ u\ y}, or both variables simultaneously f3(u, v) and e^{\ x\ v\ +\ u\ y}. Similarly for any greater number of variables or dimensions. Now, is there any proof or derivation for all of this (first of all existence, but uniqueness would be nice too)? I've always wondered why the decomposition exactly matches up to the original function, especially when decomposing > 1 variables together. Does it matter the order of the variables with which we decompose / integrate? There must be some sort of mechanism, for the lack of a better term, making sure that the individual 1-D decompositions interfere with each other exactly to yield the original function, no?
 
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Anyone knows? ... Btw I left out the imaginary number in the OP; corrected below.

Say we have f(x, y). We can Fourier decompose it in terms of f1(y, v) and e^{\ i\ x\ v}, f2(x, u) and e^{\ i\ u\ y}, or both variables simultaneously f3(u, v) and e^{\ i\ (x\ v\ +\ u\ y)}. Similarly for any greater number of variables or dimensions. Now, is there any proof or derivation for all of this (first of all existence, but uniqueness would be nice too)? I've always wondered why the decomposition exactly matches up to the original function, especially when decomposing > 1 variables together. Does it matter the order of the variables with which we decompose / integrate? There must be some sort of mechanism, for the lack of a better term, making sure that the individual 1-D decompositions interfere with each other exactly to yield the original function, no?
 
Check out fubini's theorem about switching integration order
 

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