Multivariable limits, how to show existence or non-existence

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SUMMARY

The limit of the function ln((1+y^2)/(x^2+xy)) as (x,y) approaches (1,0) is confirmed to exist and equals 0. Initial attempts using paths x=1 and y=0 yielded a limit of 0. Further exploration with polar coordinates (x=rcos, y=rsin) clarified the approach, leading to the conclusion that the limit is consistent across different paths. The ε-δ definition was emphasized as the proper method for proving the existence of limits in multivariable calculus.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of multivariable limits
  • Familiarity with the ε-δ definition of limits
  • Knowledge of polar coordinates in calculus
  • Ability to analyze limits along different paths
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the ε-δ definition of limits in multivariable calculus
  • Learn how to apply polar coordinates to evaluate limits
  • Research common indeterminate forms and their resolutions
  • Explore examples of limits that do not exist due to path dependence
USEFUL FOR

Students in calculus courses, particularly those studying multivariable limits, educators teaching limit concepts, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of ε-δ proofs in calculus.

mike1967
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Homework Statement


lim(x,y)->(1,0) of ln((1+y^2)/(x^2+xy))


Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



Used two paths,
x=1
y=0
both gave my lim=0
so I tried x=rsin y=rcos, in attempt to use ε-δ to prove it.

got to ln((1+r^2sin^2)/(r^2cos(cos+sin)))

not sure where to go from here.
 
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Try going linear, with y = m(x - 1) instead.
 
mike1967 said:

Homework Statement


lim(x,y)->(1,0) of ln((1+y^2)/(x^2+xy))

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



Used two paths,
x=1
y=0
both gave my lim=0
so I tried x=rsin y=rcos, in attempt to use ε-δ to prove it.

got to ln((1+r^2sin^2)/(r^2cos(cos+sin)))

not sure where to go from here.
I don't see that there's any difficulty as long as x→1 and y→0. ln(1/1) = 0
 
My issue is in lecture my professor made it clear that finding any finite number of ways a function approached the same number did not prove that the lim was equal to that, in this case 0, because there are infinite number of ways (x,y) can approach the point. Does this make sense or did I misunderstand? Basically the only way he taught us to prove a lim existed was to use the ε-δ.
 
mike1967 said:
My issue is in lecture my professor made it clear that finding any finite number of ways a function approached the same number did not prove that the lim was equal to that, in this case 0, because there are infinite number of ways (x,y) can approach the point. Does this make sense or did I misunderstand? Basically the only way he taught us to prove a lim existed was to use the ε-δ.
Yes, what your prof. said makes sense. I'm pretty sure that the functions that cause trouble are of indeterminate form, usually 0/0 . Very often the limit is being taken as (x,y)→(0,0) in which case using polar coordinates is often a big help.

For the problem in this thread, you have neither 0/0, and (x,y)→(1,0) rather than (0,0).

BTW: If the limit does not exist, then if you may be able to show that the limit is different along different paths.
 
Well along the path x=y the limit blows up, 1/0, so then the limit does not exist?
 
mike1967 said:
Well along the path x=y the limit blows up, 1/0, so then the limit does not exist?
The line y=x doesn't go through the point (1,0) .
 
opps, ok. I think I solved it now.
The limit exists and is equal to 0
epsilon=r
delta=r
epsilon=delta.
 

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