MHB N27.09 Derivative of tan and phase shift

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on finding a function with a given derivative, specifically r'(\theta) = 6 + sec^2(\theta), that passes through the point P(\frac{\pi}{4}, 0). Participants clarify the integration process, leading to the solution r(\theta) = 6\theta + tan(\theta) + C, and note the importance of using x instead of theta in Desmos for graphing. There is confusion about whether the result indicates a phase shift or a vertical shift, with some concluding it represents a downward vertical shift rather than a phase shift. The integration involves applying the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTOC) to solve the initial value problem (IVP). The discussion emphasizes the methodical approach to solving ODEs with initial conditions.
karush
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,240
Reaction score
5
Find the function with the given derivative
whose graph passes through point P.
$$r'\left(\theta\right) =6+\sec^2 \left({\theta}\right), P\left(\frac{\pi}{4},0\right)$$
[desmos="0,2pi,-10,10"]6+sec^2(x)[/desmos]

The phase shift appears to be 1 but not sure how to get that

How do add another equation to desmos?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
You have $$\sec\left({\theta}\right)$$ in your equation and $$\sec^2\left({\theta}\right)$$ in your graph. Which one is it?
 
$$\sec^2 \left({\theta}\right)$$

It appears you have to use x in desmos
 
How about $$ r\left(\theta\right) = \int r'(\theta) d\theta = \int 6+\sec ^2 \left({\theta}\right)d\theta = 6\theta +\tan(\theta) +C $$
 
$$6\theta+\tan\left({\theta +1 }\right)$$
Seems to be the answer
But desmos doesn't like $\theta
 
Last edited:
just use x instead of theta
 
What you are given is the IVP:

$$\d{r}{\theta}=\sec^2(\theta)+6$$ where $$r\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=0$$

Integrating w.r.t $\theta$, we obtain:

$$\int_0^{r(\theta)}\,du=\int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\theta}\sec^2(v)+6\,dv$$

Applying the FTOC, there results:

$$r(\theta)-0=\left[\tan(v)+6v\right]_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\theta}=\tan(\theta)+6\theta-\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)-6\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\tan(\theta)+6\theta-\frac{3\pi+2}{2}$$
 
Well that graphed to the answer but it seemed to be a vertical shift downward,
Why would you do this vs a phase shift?
 
karush said:
Well that graphed to the answer but it seemed to be a vertical shift downward,
Why would you do this vs a phase shift?

We are given an IVP, and I simply used a standard method for solving such a problem. An IVP consists of an ODE and an initial condition...so we can use the initial and final values (boundaries) as the limits of integration, and then apply the FTOC to get the solution satisfying both the ODE and the initial values.