Need some help with trace calculation in an index theorem

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the challenges faced in reproducing E. Weinberg's index calculation related to the dimension of the moduli space generated by BPS solutions in the Maxwell-Higgs model. The operators involved are defined as matrices D and its hermitian adjoint D†, with specific components including electromagnetic vector potentials A_j and complex scalar fields φ_1 and φ_2. The user struggles with an extra term in their calculations, leading to confusion regarding the validity of the expression A_1∂_2 - A_2∂_1 in the Coulomb gauge. Ultimately, the discussion clarifies that the computation of D†D requires careful handling of operator properties, particularly the non-associative nature of derivatives.

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Othin
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TL;DR
I am having trouble with an apparently simple step in Weinberg's index calculation for Abelian BPS vortices. Specifically, the expression ##( A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)## prevents me from finding the correct result.
I hate to create a thread for a step in a calculation, by I don't know what else to do. I'm having a lot of trouble reproducing E. Weinberg's index calculation (found here https://inspirehep.net/literature/7539) that gives the dimension of the moduli space generated by BPS solutions in the Maxwell-Higgs model. This calculation revolves around the operators
\begin{equation}
D=\begin{bmatrix}
(\partial_{1} + A_2) & (-\partial_{2} + A_1) & \phi_2 & \phi_1 \\
(\partial_{2} - A_1) & (\partial_{1}+A_2) & -\phi_1 & \phi_2\\
\phi_1 & \phi_2 & -\partial_2 & \partial_1 \\
0 & 0 & \partial_1 & \partial_2
\end{bmatrix}
\end{equation}
and its hermitian adjoint
\begin{equation}
D^{\dagger}=\begin{bmatrix}
(-\partial_{1} + A_2) & (-\partial_{2} - A_1) & \phi_1& 0 \\
(\partial_{2}+ A_1) & (-\partial_{1}+A_2) & \phi_2 & 0\\
\phi_2 & -\phi_1 & \partial_2 & -\partial_1 \\
\phi_1 & \phi_2 & -\partial_1 & -\partial_2
\end{bmatrix}
\end{equation},
where ##A_j## is an electromagnetic vector potential while ##\phi_1## and ##\phi_2## are the real and imaginary parts of a complex scalar field, and the Gauge condition ##\partial_1A_1 + \partial_2A_2## is assumed. At some point, it is stated that ##D^{\dagger}D=-\nabla^2 -L_1##, ##DD^{\dagger}=-\nabla^2 -L_2##, where ##L_i## are operators satisfying ##\rm{Tr}(L_1-L_2)=4(\partial_1A_2 -\partial_2 A_2)##. That's what I'm having trouble with. It should be a straightforward calculation, but I get an extra factor in the result, and I don't see how it is zero. Specifically, I find ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{11}=-\nabla^2 + |A|^2 - F_{12} - A_1\partial_2 + A_2\partial_1 + \phi_1^2;## ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{22}=(D^{\dagger}D)_{11} - \phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2;## ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{33}=(D^{\dagger}D)_{44}=-\nabla^2 + (\phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2)##; ##(DD^{\dagger})_{11}=-\nabla^2 + |A|^2 + F_{12} + A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1 + \phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2=(DD^{\dagger})_{22};##; ##(DD^{\dagger})_{33}=-\nabla^2 +(\phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2) ## and, finally, ##(DD^{\dagger})_{33}=-\nabla^2 ##. Thus, ##\rm{Tr}(L_1-L_2)=4(\partial_1A_2 -\partial_2 A_2 + A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)##. At first I thought I had the signs wrong, but I always end up with this extra term, no matter how many attempts I make. So, is ##\mathbf{( A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)}## zero in the Coulomb gauge or something like that ? If not, does someone have a clue on what I messed up? It may be something silly, but I really want to understand this.
 
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Your computation (at least for ##(D^\dagger D)_{11}## which is the only one I've checked) is wrong.
In general, if you have two operators ##A## and ##B##, you can define the operator ##(AB)## by requiring that $$(AB)x=A(Bx), \quad \forall x$$
Then, if your operators have the associative property you can simply write
$$(AB)x=A(Bx)=(A\cdot B) x \Longrightarrow AB = A\cdot B$$
But that's not true in general. In particular, derivatives don't have the associative property, so you can't just multiply ##D## and ##D^\dagger## as normal matrices. You need to compute ##D^\dagger(D\psi)## for an arbitrary ##\psi## and then find the corresponding operator ##(D^\dagger D)## that would give the same result.
 
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Gaussian97 said:
Your computation (at least for ##(D^\dagger D)_{11}## which is the only one I've checked) is wrong.
In general, if you have two operators ##A## and ##B##, you can define the operator ##(AB)## by requiring that $$(AB)x=A(Bx), \quad \forall x$$
Then, if your operators have the associative property you can simply write
$$(AB)x=A(Bx)=(A\cdot B) x \Longrightarrow AB = A\cdot B$$
But that's not true in general. In particular, derivatives don't have the associative property, so you can't just multiply ##D## and ##D^\dagger## as normal matrices. You need to compute ##D^\dagger(D\psi)## for an arbitrary ##\psi## and then find the corresponding operator ##(D^\dagger D)## that would give the same result.
Oh, that's right. Thank you very much, I now have the right result.
 

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