I Need some help with trace calculation in an index theorem

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on difficulties in reproducing E. Weinberg's index calculation related to the Maxwell-Higgs model. The main issue arises from the computation of the operators D and D†, specifically in the context of their non-associative properties when involving derivatives. A participant clarifies that the multiplication of these operators cannot be treated as standard matrix multiplication, leading to the discovery of an error in the original calculations. Once this misunderstanding is addressed, the original poster successfully arrives at the correct result. The conversation highlights the importance of careful operator handling in mathematical physics.
Othin
Messages
34
Reaction score
1
TL;DR
I am having trouble with an apparently simple step in Weinberg's index calculation for Abelian BPS vortices. Specifically, the expression ##( A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)## prevents me from finding the correct result.
I hate to create a thread for a step in a calculation, by I don't know what else to do. I'm having a lot of trouble reproducing E. Weinberg's index calculation (found here https://inspirehep.net/literature/7539) that gives the dimension of the moduli space generated by BPS solutions in the Maxwell-Higgs model. This calculation revolves around the operators
\begin{equation}
D=\begin{bmatrix}
(\partial_{1} + A_2) & (-\partial_{2} + A_1) & \phi_2 & \phi_1 \\
(\partial_{2} - A_1) & (\partial_{1}+A_2) & -\phi_1 & \phi_2\\
\phi_1 & \phi_2 & -\partial_2 & \partial_1 \\
0 & 0 & \partial_1 & \partial_2
\end{bmatrix}
\end{equation}
and its hermitian adjoint
\begin{equation}
D^{\dagger}=\begin{bmatrix}
(-\partial_{1} + A_2) & (-\partial_{2} - A_1) & \phi_1& 0 \\
(\partial_{2}+ A_1) & (-\partial_{1}+A_2) & \phi_2 & 0\\
\phi_2 & -\phi_1 & \partial_2 & -\partial_1 \\
\phi_1 & \phi_2 & -\partial_1 & -\partial_2
\end{bmatrix}
\end{equation},
where ##A_j## is an electromagnetic vector potential while ##\phi_1## and ##\phi_2## are the real and imaginary parts of a complex scalar field, and the Gauge condition ##\partial_1A_1 + \partial_2A_2## is assumed. At some point, it is stated that ##D^{\dagger}D=-\nabla^2 -L_1##, ##DD^{\dagger}=-\nabla^2 -L_2##, where ##L_i## are operators satisfying ##\rm{Tr}(L_1-L_2)=4(\partial_1A_2 -\partial_2 A_2)##. That's what I'm having trouble with. It should be a straightforward calculation, but I get an extra factor in the result, and I don't see how it is zero. Specifically, I find ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{11}=-\nabla^2 + |A|^2 - F_{12} - A_1\partial_2 + A_2\partial_1 + \phi_1^2;## ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{22}=(D^{\dagger}D)_{11} - \phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2;## ##(D^{\dagger}D)_{33}=(D^{\dagger}D)_{44}=-\nabla^2 + (\phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2)##; ##(DD^{\dagger})_{11}=-\nabla^2 + |A|^2 + F_{12} + A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1 + \phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2=(DD^{\dagger})_{22};##; ##(DD^{\dagger})_{33}=-\nabla^2 +(\phi_1^2 + \phi_2^2) ## and, finally, ##(DD^{\dagger})_{33}=-\nabla^2 ##. Thus, ##\rm{Tr}(L_1-L_2)=4(\partial_1A_2 -\partial_2 A_2 + A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)##. At first I thought I had the signs wrong, but I always end up with this extra term, no matter how many attempts I make. So, is ##\mathbf{( A_1\partial_2 - A_2\partial_1)}## zero in the Coulomb gauge or something like that ? If not, does someone have a clue on what I messed up? It may be something silly, but I really want to understand this.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your computation (at least for ##(D^\dagger D)_{11}## which is the only one I've checked) is wrong.
In general, if you have two operators ##A## and ##B##, you can define the operator ##(AB)## by requiring that $$(AB)x=A(Bx), \quad \forall x$$
Then, if your operators have the associative property you can simply write
$$(AB)x=A(Bx)=(A\cdot B) x \Longrightarrow AB = A\cdot B$$
But that's not true in general. In particular, derivatives don't have the associative property, so you can't just multiply ##D## and ##D^\dagger## as normal matrices. You need to compute ##D^\dagger(D\psi)## for an arbitrary ##\psi## and then find the corresponding operator ##(D^\dagger D)## that would give the same result.
 
Gaussian97 said:
Your computation (at least for ##(D^\dagger D)_{11}## which is the only one I've checked) is wrong.
In general, if you have two operators ##A## and ##B##, you can define the operator ##(AB)## by requiring that $$(AB)x=A(Bx), \quad \forall x$$
Then, if your operators have the associative property you can simply write
$$(AB)x=A(Bx)=(A\cdot B) x \Longrightarrow AB = A\cdot B$$
But that's not true in general. In particular, derivatives don't have the associative property, so you can't just multiply ##D## and ##D^\dagger## as normal matrices. You need to compute ##D^\dagger(D\psi)## for an arbitrary ##\psi## and then find the corresponding operator ##(D^\dagger D)## that would give the same result.
Oh, that's right. Thank you very much, I now have the right result.
 
Hi everyone, I am doing a final project on the title " fundamentals of neutrino physics". I wanted to raise some issues with neutrino which makes it the possible way to the physics beyond standard model. I am myself doing some research on these topics but at some points the math bugs me out. Anyway, i have some questions which answers themselves confounded me due to the complicated math. Some pf them are: 1. Why wouldn't there be a mirror image of a neutrino? Is it because they are...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
30
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K