Need to help to solve an integral from quantum conductance

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around solving an integral related to quantum conductance. Participants explore the mathematical formulation and evaluation of the integral, which involves the Fermi-Dirac distribution and its implications in the context of charge density.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Mathematical reasoning, Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant, Karthikselvan, presents an integral that is part of the quantum conductance derivation and expresses difficulty in solving it.
  • Another participant questions the clarity of Karthikselvan's integral setup and seeks to confirm the exact expression being evaluated, suggesting potential confusion regarding constants and the integral's structure.
  • A third participant proposes a substitution method to evaluate the integral, indicating that it resembles the Fermi-Dirac distribution and provides a step-by-step approach to simplify the integral using substitution and partial fractions.
  • Karthikselvan later acknowledges that the suggestions provided helped him arrive at the answer.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While Karthikselvan initially struggled with the integral, he later confirms that he was able to find the answer after following the suggestions. However, the initial confusion regarding the integral's setup indicates that there was some lack of clarity in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved aspects regarding the clarity of the integral's formulation and the role of constants in the expression, which may affect the evaluation process.

skarthikselvan
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Hi All,

While going through quantum conductnace derivation, I got stuck by an integral.

I = ((e*(h/2pi))/(m*pi)) Integral from 0 to infinity

dt / ( exp (((((h/2pi)^2 * t)/(2*m)) - Ef) / kT)) + 1)

The answer is
I = (2e/h)*kT*ln(1 + exp(Ef/kT))

I am stuggling to find the answer. Any help will be appreciated.

Thanks
Karthikselvan
 
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skarthikselvan said:
Hi All,

While going through quantum conductnace derivation, I got stuck by an integral.

I = ((e*(h/2pi))/(m*pi)) Integral from 0 to infinity

dt / ( exp (((((h/2pi)^2 * t)/(2*m)) - Ef) / kT)) + 1)
Cannot really get what you are asking here... :frown:
Are you trying to evaluate:
[tex]\mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\infty} \frac{dt}{e ^ { \frac{ \frac{ \left( \frac{h}{2 \pi} \right) ^ 2 t}{2m} - Ef}{kT} + 1}}[/tex]?
If that's what you mean, then what does the part before it: I = ((e*(h/2pi))/(m*pi)) have to do here? Is it also an integral? Or a constant?
Or do you mean:
Are you trying to evaluate:
[tex]I = \frac{e ^ {\frac{h}{2 \pi}}}{2m} \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\infty} \frac{dt}{e ^ {\frac{\frac{ \left( \frac{h}{2 \pi} \right) ^ 2 t}{2m} - Ef}{kT} + 1}}[/tex]?
 
Last edited:
I think [itex]e[/itex] is the electronic charge (hence the exp notation later on), it looks like he's trying to calculate a charge density (the integrand is the Fermi-Dirac distribution for average number of fermions in a given state).

To evaluate

[tex]\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{e^{\frac{ax-b}{c}} + 1}dx[/tex]

where a,b,c > 0, just sub

[tex]u = e^{\frac{ax-b}{c}}.[/tex]

Then [itex]\frac{c}{au}du = dx[/itex], and when [itex]x=0[/itex] you get [itex]u = e^{-b/c}[/itex], so the integral is

[tex]\int_{e^{-b/c}}^\infty \frac{c}{au(u+1)}du.[/tex]

You can split the integrand up by partial fractions:

[tex]\frac{1}{u(u+1)} = \frac{1}{u} - \frac{1}{u+1},[/tex]

and I think you should be able to finish from there (you'll need to simplify a bit after integrating to get to the form of the answer you posted above, but it's right) :smile:
 
Last edited:
Thanks Data. I am able to get the answer after following your suggestions.
 

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