Negative binomial transformation and mgf

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem involving the negative binomial distribution and its moment generating function (mgf). The original poster presents a homework statement that includes calculating the mgf of a negative binomial random variable and exploring the behavior of a transformed variable as a parameter approaches zero.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the mgf for the negative binomial distribution and the transformation of a new random variable. There are attempts to derive the mgf and explore its limit as the parameter p approaches zero.

Discussion Status

Some participants have made progress in calculating the mgf and are exploring the implications of their findings. There is an ongoing examination of the limit process and the validity of ignoring certain terms in the limit evaluation. Multiple interpretations of the transformation and its consequences are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may impose specific methods or approaches to be used in the calculations. The discussion includes questioning the assumptions made during the transformation of variables and the behavior of the mgf as parameters change.

Mogarrr
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Imo, this problem is crazy hard.

Homework Statement



Let X have the negative binomial distribution with pmf:

f_X(x) = \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x}, x=0.1.2...,

where 0<p<1 and r is a positive integer.
(a) Calculate the mgf (moment generating function) of X.

(b) Define a new random variable by Y=2pX. Show that as p \downarrow 0, the mgf of Y converges to that of a chi squared random variable with 2r degrees of freedom by showing that

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{1-2t})^{r}, |t|< \frac 12.


Homework Equations



the moment generating function for a discrete random variable, denoted as M_X(t) is equal to

\sum_x e^{tx}f_X(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think I've figured out part (a), but I'm stuck on part (b).

For part (a) the mgf is

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} e^{tx} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x} = \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x}.

I would think that...

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = 1,

since this is another negative binomial pmf (probability mass function), whose sum must be 1.

So now I do my sneaky trick...

\frac {(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \frac {p^{r}}{p^{r}} \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \cdot \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = <br /> \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}.

So if this is correct, that takes care of part (a).

For part (b) I have Y = 2pX, so y = 2px \iff x = \frac {y}{2p}. I think this is a bijection, so I have

f_Y(y) = \sum_{x \in g^{-1}(y)} f_X(x) = f_X(\frac {y}{2p}).

I'm not too sure about this transformation, but continuing on, I have mgf of Y is

\sum_y e^{ty}f_Y(y) = \sum_y e^{yt} \binom {r + \frac {y}{2p} - 1}{\frac {y}{2p}}p^{r}(1-p)^{\frac {y}{2p}}...

I could continue on, but the trick I used earlier doesn't seem to work on this summation. Please help.
 
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Mogarrr said:
Imo, this problem is crazy hard.

Homework Statement



Let X have the negative binomial distribution with pmf:

f_X(x) = \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x}, x=0.1.2...,

where 0&lt;p&lt;1 and r is a positive integer.
(a) Calculate the mgf (moment generating function) of X.

(b) Define a new random variable by Y=2pX. Show that as p \downarrow 0, the mgf of Y converges to that of a chi squared random variable with 2r degrees of freedom by showing that

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{1-2t})^{r}, |t|&lt; \frac 12.


Homework Equations



the moment generating function for a discrete random variable, denoted as M_X(t) is equal to

\sum_x e^{tx}f_X(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think I've figured out part (a), but I'm stuck on part (b).

For part (a) the mgf is

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} e^{tx} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x} = \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x}.

I would think that...

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = 1,

since this is another negative binomial pmf (probability mass function), whose sum must be 1.

So now I do my sneaky trick...

\frac {(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \frac {p^{r}}{p^{r}} \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \cdot \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = <br /> \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}.

So if this is correct, that takes care of part (a).

For part (b) I have Y = 2pX, so y = 2px \iff x = \frac {y}{2p}. I think this is a bijection, so I have

f_Y(y) = \sum_{x \in g^{-1}(y)} f_X(x) = f_X(\frac {y}{2p}).

I'm not too sure about this transformation, but continuing on, I have mgf of Y is

\sum_y e^{ty}f_Y(y) = \sum_y e^{yt} \binom {r + \frac {y}{2p} - 1}{\frac {y}{2p}}p^{r}(1-p)^{\frac {y}{2p}}...

I could continue on, but the trick I used earlier doesn't seem to work on this summation. Please help.

The mgf of ##Y = 2pX## is ##M_Y(t) = E e^{tY} = E e^{2pt X} = M_X(2pt)##.
 
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Ray Vickson said:
The mgf of ##Y = 2pX## is ##M_Y(t) = E e^{tY} = E e^{2pt X} = M_X(2pt)##.

That seems simple.

So M_X(2pt) = (\frac {p}{1-(1-p)e^{2pt}})^{r}, right?
 
Ok, then taking the limit as p approaches 0, and ignoring the exponent r, for now, I have...

lim_{p \to 0} \frac {p}{(1-(1-p)e^{2pt})} = lim_{p \to 0} \frac {p}{(1-e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = \frac 00.

Applying L'Hospital's rule, I have...

lim_{p \to 0} \frac {\frac {d}{dp}}{\frac {d}{dp}}\frac {p}{(1-e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = lim_{p \to 0} \frac 1{(-2te^{2pt}+e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = \frac 1{(1-2t)}.

Putting everything together I have...

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{(1-2t)})^{r}.

Is it legit to ignore the exponent while taking the limit?
 
Yes, why not? The function f(w) = w^r is continuous in w for fixed integer r > 0.
 
Last edited:

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