Newton's Laws: Sharp vs. Dull Knives

Click For Summary
A sharp knife cuts better than a dull knife due to its reduced surface area, which minimizes resistance and allows for greater force application according to Newton's Laws. The first law indicates that an object in motion stays in motion, meaning the sharper knife maintains momentum better. The second law highlights that with less surface area, the sharp knife can accelerate more effectively, translating to increased cutting force. The third law suggests that the sharp knife experiences less opposing force due to its design. Overall, the mechanics of cutting involve understanding how these laws apply to the differences in knife sharpness.
tornzaer
Messages
77
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Why does a sharp knife cut better than a dull knife? Explain using Newton's Laws.


The Attempt at a Solution


1st Law: Since the sharper knife has less surface area, it keeps more better than the dull knife. The friction is less.

2nd Law: Less surface area on knife means more acceleration means more force.

3rd Law: Less opposing force because of less surface area?

Please correct me if I'm missing something. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
First: List Newton's laws and include them in yuor answer (chances are if this is graded, the grader wants to see these laws explicitly stated). What does the first law say? How does this relate to EACH knife, or what, if anything, does it have to say about the properties of the forces exerted by or on each knife? then move on to the second...

In each part: always specify WHICH knife you are talking about, and specifically compare it to the other knife... right now your answer is (especially in parts 2 and 3), to tell the truth, pretty unclear about which knife you are discussing, and then in part 1, you seem to be missing a word or two (it keeps more _____ better?).

Also: I end to personally say the problem has less to do with friction (which is best to think of in terms on sliding ON a surface or resisting sliding, in the case of kinetic friction) and more to do with what might be better called "resistance" (like air resistance, except in this case, it a mass other than an air mass). Air resistance does tend to relate to area. Friction perhaps to your surprise does not relate to area.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 42 ·
2
Replies
42
Views
6K
Replies
44
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
7K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
1K