What is the magnitude and direction of the applied force?

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The discussion revolves around calculating the magnitude and direction of the applied force on a 1.25kg object that accelerates from 17.4 m/s to 26.8 m/s at an angle of 34 degrees over 3.41 seconds. The initial and final velocity components were analyzed, resulting in a horizontal component of 39.62 m/s and a vertical component derived from the sine of the angle. A calculation error was identified in determining the change in velocity, particularly in the vertical component, which starts at zero. The correct approach involves finding the change in both horizontal and vertical components separately. Ultimately, the force was calculated to be 16.65 N, but the user sought clarification on the vertical component's contribution to the overall force.
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Homework Statement


A 1.25kg object is moving in the x direction at 17.4m/s. Just 3.41s later, it is moving at 26.8m/s at 34.0 degrees to the x-axis. What are the magnitude and direction of the force applied during this time?


Homework Equations


F=ma

The Attempt at a Solution


Firstly i drew a diagram and it was in vector components so i calculated the resultant.

1st component
H: 17.4m/s
V: 0m/s

2nd component
H: 26.8cos(34)
V: 26.8sin(34)

Resultant component:
Horizontal = 17.4 + 26.8cos(34) = 39.62 m/s
Vertical = 26.8sin(34)

so \sqrt{39.62^2+22.22^2}
direction Resultant = tan^{-1}(\frac{22.22}{39.62})

direction = 30 degrees

find the magnitude F = m * \frac{v}{t}

F = 1.25 * \frac{45.43}{3.41}
F=16.65N

This is incorrect can someone tell me where i have gone wrong.

P.S
 
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Horizontal = 17.4 + 26.8cos(34) = 39.62 m/s
You have to find the change in horizontal component of velocity (vf - vi)
 
is this the same in the vertical component?

edit never mind its not the same
 
Last edited:
Paymemoney said:
is this the same in the vertical component?
Yes. But initial vertical component of the velocity is zero.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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