Newton's second law dp/dt version?

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The discussion centers on clarifying the momentum form of Newton's second law, specifically the relationship between force, momentum, and acceleration. It confirms that the force can be expressed as the time derivative of momentum, leading to the equation F = dp/dt, where p is momentum. The participants discuss how acceleration is the second derivative of position, linking it to the first derivative of velocity. The conversation also highlights the importance of the product rule in differentiation when dealing with mass and velocity. Overall, the thread emphasizes the foundational concepts of Newton's laws and the mathematical relationships involved.
Steve Drake
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Hello,

I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...

So we know
\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right)
and that
\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)

so is

\frac{d\bar{p}}{dt}=m\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}

What I mean is this bit \frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt} somehow equal to \bar{a}

Thanks
 
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Yes, since acceleration is the (first order) time derivative of velocity and velocity is the (first order) derivative of position, the acceleration is said to be the second order derivative of position, which can be written as ##a = \frac{d^2x}{dt^2}##

You can read more about other notations for higher derivatives on [1]

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative
 
Force F = dp/dt, this result summarizes Newton's first/second law, to prove this, we know that F = ma = m*dv/dt, mass is invariant so we can treat it as a constant, which yields to m*dv/dt = d(m*v)/dt = dp/dt, If no force is acting on an object F = 0 = dp/dt, p is constant from which it follows Newton's first law and momentum conservation, Good luck :p
 
Steve Drake said:
Hello,

I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...

So we know
\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right)
and that
\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)
Using the product rule:

\vec{F} = \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(m\vec{v}) = m\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt} + \frac{dm}{dt}v

If m is constant, dm/dt = 0 so:

\vec{F} = m\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt} = ma = m\frac{d}{dt}v = m\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{d\vec{x}}{dt})

AM
 
Last edited:
Thanks guys, forgot about the chain rule for differentiation.

So in general, whenever there is a \frac{d^{2}}{dx} then it can be thought of two separate derivatives, each giving their own result. But the ^2 means it skips the first result and we go right to the second?
 
Steve Drake said:
Thanks guys, forgot about the chain rule for differentiation.

So in general, whenever there is a \frac{d^{2}}{dx} then it can be thought of two separate derivatives, each giving their own result. But the ^2 means it skips the first result and we go right to the second?
Actually, I misspoke. It is the product rule not the chain rule. I have corrected the error.

The ##\frac{d^{2}x}{dt^2}## signifies the second derivative with respect to time - the derivative with respect to time of (the derivative with respect to time of x).

AM
 
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