- #1
Steve Drake
- 53
- 1
Hello,
I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...
So we know
[tex]\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right) [/tex]
and that
[tex]\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)[/tex]
so is
[tex]\frac{d\bar{p}}{dt}=m\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}[/tex]
What I mean is this bit [tex]\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}[/tex] somehow equal to [tex]\bar{a}[/tex]
Thanks
I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...
So we know
[tex]\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right) [/tex]
and that
[tex]\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)[/tex]
so is
[tex]\frac{d\bar{p}}{dt}=m\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}[/tex]
What I mean is this bit [tex]\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}[/tex] somehow equal to [tex]\bar{a}[/tex]
Thanks