In band theory, one of the first things that is always stated is that a completely filled band, such as the valence band at low temperatures, will not contribute any current because the average velocity will equal zero. This is usually justified by showing a plot of a parabolic bandstructure around k = 0 and stating that for every electron of a certain positive velocity, there is another electron with an equal but opposite direction velocity. In general however, isn't the bandstructure symmetric only to a second approximation in the bandstructure Taylor expansion? For an asymmetric bandstructure, it seems that the average velocity will automatically be non-zero for a completely filled band and generate a current. What am I missing?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# I Non-zero current from a completely filled band

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads for zero current completely |
---|

I Do electrons have a net motion when a DC voltage is applied? |

I Drift velocity in P-N Junctions |

A Creation of spin current |

A Difference between conduction & convection current density? |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**