- #1
- 1,344
- 33
The wavefunction ##\Psi(x,t)## for a free particle is given by
##\Psi(x,t) = A e^{i(kx-\frac{\hbar k}{2m}t)}##
This wavefunction is non-normalisable. Does this mean that free particles do not exist in nature?
##\Psi(x,t) = A e^{i(kx-\frac{\hbar k}{2m}t)}##
This wavefunction is non-normalisable. Does this mean that free particles do not exist in nature?