Normalization of a wavefunction

In summary: Shouldn't the coefficient in front of the second term be ##\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{5a}}##? Yes, it should be ##\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{5a}}##.
  • #1
tina21
14
2
Homework Statement
Normalize the wave function
Ѱ(x,0)=A/√a sin(ᴨx/a) +√3/5 sin(3ᴨx/a) + 1/√5a sin(5ᴨx/a)
Relevant Equations
Ѱ(x,0)=A/√a sin(ᴨx/a) +√3/5 sin(3ᴨx/a) + 1/√5a sin(5ᴨx/a)
I tried writing the function as:

Ѱ = c1Φ1 + C2𝚽2 + C3𝚽3

in order to then find mod C1^2...

But ɸ = √2/a sin(ᴨx/a) and not sin(ᴨx/a)

I cannot understand how the factor of "√2/a " comes
 
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  • #2
tina21 said:
I cannot understand how the factor of "√2/a " comes
What do you not understand about $$\phi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac 2 a}\sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a})$$
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
What do you not understand about $$\phi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac 2 a}\sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a})$$
According to me the function shouldn't have had the factor √2/a but I now believe the factor arises upon normalising phi (x). Is that correct?
 
  • #4
tina21 said:
According to me the function shouldn't have had the factor √2/a but I now believe the factor arises upon normalising phi (x). Is that correct?
Yes. ##\phi_n(x)## is, by definition, a normalised wavefunction. For that reason, it is always best to organise things so that you have $$\psi(x) = \sum a_n \phi_n(x)$$ and not $$\psi(x) = \sum a_n \sin (\frac{n \pi x}{a})$$ From that point of view, the question has made things a little difficult for you - but it should be easy enough to take the first step and express your wavefunction in terms of normalised eigenfunctions.
 
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  • #5
PeroK said:
Yes. ##\phi_n(x)## is, by definition, a normalised wavefunction. For that reason, it is always best to organise things so that you have $$\psi(x) = \sum a_n \phi_n(x)$$ and not $$\psi(x) = \sum a_n \sin (\frac{n \pi x}{a})$$ From that point of view, the question has made things a little difficult for you - but it should be easy enough to take the first step and express your wavefunction in terms of normalised eigenfunctions.
Thank you. I now understand.
 
  • #6
tina21 said:
Homework Statement:: Normalize the wave function
Ѱ(x,0)=A/√a sin(ᴨx/a) +√3/5 sin(3ᴨx/a) + 1/√5a sin(5ᴨx/a)
Relevant Equations:: Ѱ(x,0)=A/√a sin(ᴨx/a) +√3/5 sin(3ᴨx/a) + 1/√5a sin(5ᴨx/a)
Shouldn't the coefficient in front of the second term be ##\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{5a}}##?
Just asking ##\dots##
 

1. What is normalization of a wavefunction?

The normalization of a wavefunction is a mathematical process used to ensure that the total probability of finding a particle in a given region is equal to 1. This is necessary because the wavefunction itself does not have a physical meaning, but its square, known as the probability density, represents the likelihood of finding the particle in a certain location.

2. Why is normalization important in quantum mechanics?

Normalization is important in quantum mechanics because it ensures that the probabilities calculated from the wavefunction are physically meaningful. It also allows us to compare the wavefunctions of different systems and make predictions about their behavior.

3. How is normalization of a wavefunction performed?

To normalize a wavefunction, we take the integral of the absolute value squared of the wavefunction over all space, and then divide the original wavefunction by the square root of this integral. This ensures that the total probability of finding the particle is equal to 1.

4. What happens if a wavefunction is not normalized?

If a wavefunction is not normalized, the probabilities calculated from it will not be physically meaningful. This can lead to incorrect predictions and interpretations of the behavior of quantum systems.

5. Can a wavefunction be normalized to a value other than 1?

No, a wavefunction must be normalized to a value of 1 in order for it to represent a physically meaningful probability density. Normalizing to a different value would change the overall probability distribution and could lead to incorrect predictions.

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