Normalizing the Schrödinger Equation

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Desh627
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Hello all,

How do you prove that, for the normalization of the Schrödinger equation, you can plug in the initial condition of psi(x,t-naught) that will satisfy normalization?
 
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Hi Desh627, perhaps you should be more specific as in what you meant.

Normally one writes down the solution of the Schrödinger equation, then finds the normalisation by computing the norm right?

If I remember correctly, the norm is time independent?
 
jtbell said:
Are you trying to prove that if [itex]\Psi(x,t)[/itex] is normalized at t = 0, it stays normalized at later times?

Precisely.

Actually, I figured it out, but thanks anyway man. I may be back here later today with more questions.