Normalizing wavefunction obtained from Lorentzian wave packet

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around obtaining a normalized wavefunction from a Lorentzian wave packet integral. The integral was solved using Jordan's Lemma and the Cauchy Residue Theorem, yielding the wavefunction as ψ(x) = (Nπe^(-xα))/α. However, the normalization condition led to a non-converging integral, raising doubts about the correctness of the wavefunction or the normalization process. A suggestion was made to evaluate the contour integral using two contours for x > 0 and x < 0, as indicated by Jordan's Lemma, which could clarify the confusion regarding the normalization issue. Understanding the application of Jordan's Lemma is crucial for resolving the problem.
XProtocol
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
1. Consider a wave packet with $$ A(k) = \frac {N}{k^2 + \alpha^2} $$
where ##\alpha## is some positive constant. This is Lorentzian wave packet.

a. Find the form of ##\psi(x) ## (You may have to use your knowledge of contour integrals in Complex analysis)
b. Find normalization N such that $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx\left | \psi(x) \right |^2 = 1 $$
Relevant Equations
Wave obtained by superposing waves with different amplitude ##A(k)## depending on k is given by:
$$\psi(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} A(k)e^{ikx}dk $$
Part a: Using the above equation. I got
$$\psi(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{Ne^{ikx}}{k^2 + \alpha^2}dk $$

So basically I needed to solve above integral to get the wave function. To solve it, I used Jordan's Lemma & Cauchy Residue Theorem.
And obtained $$\psi(x) = \frac {N \pi e^{-x\alpha}}{\alpha} $$

For part b, I need to find value of N by solving the equation: $$ \frac {\pi ^2 N^2}{\alpha^2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-2x\alpha} dx = 1 $$
Which I obtained as $$|\psi(x)|^2 = \frac {N^2\pi^2}{\alpha^2} e^{-2x\alpha} $$
Now, this integral is not converging. So either my wavefunction is incorrect or I'm doing something wrong in part b. A friend of mine also got same ##\psi(x) ## due to which I'm really confused as to where could we be going wrong.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You didn't evaluate the contour integral correctly. You should have two contours, one for ##x>0## and one for ##x<0##.
 
  • Like
Likes vanhees71
I'm not able to understand why it will have two contours and not 1 i.e ##x = -\infty## to ## x=+\infty##. Can you please explain
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
24
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
788