- #1
SamRoss
Gold Member
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I was looking at this proof of Ehrenfest's theorem http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/qmech/lectures/node35.html
I'm confused about equation 158. It looks like the first term under the integral sign in the first expression is vanishing to obtain the second expression but I don't know why it should vanish. Any ideas?
I'm confused about equation 158. It looks like the first term under the integral sign in the first expression is vanishing to obtain the second expression but I don't know why it should vanish. Any ideas?