Notation Question: Understanding "y --> 2^(-) implies y < -2

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chemistry1
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Hi,

I have a question about : http://imgur.com/RU7PvtJ

I actually understand what I need to do. I need to see if both one sided limits are the same to establish that the limit exists. The only thing which I just find weird is the "since y --> 2^(-) implies y<-2"

Can somebody explain me where this y --> 2^(-) is coming from ??
 
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It is just a notation to denote the left-hand limits. So

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow a^-} f(x)[/tex]

is the limit of ##f(x)## as ##x\rightarrow a## but ##x<a##.
 
But shouldn't we say : y --> -2^(-) and not y --> 2^(-) ?
 
chemistry1 said:
But shouldn't we say : y --> -2^(-) and not y --> 2^(-) ?

Yes, you are correct. The book is wrong there (and it is wrong is the same place on the next line too).
 
micromass said:
Yes, you are correct. The book is wrong there (and it is wrong is the same place on the next line too).
Yes, I also noticed it. Ok, thank you!