Number of functions from one set to another

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The number of functions from the set {1,...,n} to the set {0,1} is calculated by recognizing that each element in the first set can be mapped to either 0 or 1. This results in two choices for each of the n elements, leading to a total of 2^n possible functions. A formal proof can be constructed using the principle of multiplication, where each mapping decision is independent. The discussion also highlights uncertainty about the level of formality required for the proof. Ultimately, the conclusion is that there are 2^n functions from {1,...,n} to {0,1}.
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Homework Statement


How many functions are there from {1,...,n} to {0,1}? and prove.


The Attempt at a Solution


For any k in {1,...,n} we can map k to either 0 or 1. So for any k there are two possible images. Since there are n kinds of k (from 1 to n) then there are 2^n possible functions


I'm not sure how to formally prove this, or what kind of proof to use at least.
 
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I would call that a proof. How formal do you want to be?
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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