Number Theory Help: Homework Equation on Prime Generator

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a number theory problem involving an odd prime \( p \) and the existence of an integer \( a \) such that \( [a] \in \mathbb{Z}^{\times}_{p} \) is a generator, with the condition that \( a^{p-1} = 1 + cp \) for some \( c \) coprime to \( p \.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of Fermat's Little Theorem and the properties of generators in the group \( \mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times} \). Questions arise regarding the conditions under which \( \gcd(k, p) = 1 \) and the significance of \( p \) being an odd prime.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing hints and exploring various aspects of the problem. There is a focus on understanding the relationship between the order of elements in the group and the implications of the conditions set by the problem statement. Some participants suggest examining the divisibility of factors related to \( k \) and \( p \).

Contextual Notes

Participants note that \( p \) is an odd prime, which influences the properties of \( p-1 \) and the structure of the group \( \mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times} \). There is an ongoing examination of the assumptions and definitions relevant to the problem.

Kindayr
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Homework Statement



Let [itex]p[/itex] be an odd prime. Show that there exists [itex]a\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex] such that [itex][a]\in\mathbb{Z}^{\times}_{p}[/itex] is a generator and [tex]a^{p-1}=1+cp[/tex] for some [itex]c[/itex] coprime to [itex]p[/itex].

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I honestly have no idea where to even start with this. Any help will be much appreciated, no full solutions though!
 
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You could start with Fermat's Little Theorem.
 
Dick said:
You could start with Fermat's Little Theorem.

Well I know its obvious that [itex]a^{p-1}\equiv 1 (\mod p)[/itex] since [itex][a]\in\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence there exists [itex]k\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex] such that [itex]a^{p-1}=1+kp[/itex]. How do I show that [itex]\gcd (k,p)=1[/itex]?
 
Kindayr said:
Well I know its obvious that [itex]a^{p-1}\equiv 1 (\mod p)[/itex] since [itex][a]\in\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence there exists [itex]k\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex] such that [itex]a^{p-1}=1+kp[/itex]. How do I show that [itex]\gcd (k,p)=1[/itex]?

Offhand, I don't know. You were asking for a hint to start and no full solutions. I'll think about it though, if you don't find the solution first.
 
for [a] to be a generator, we also need to know that p-1 is the smallest positive integer k for which:

ak ≡ 1 (mod p)

i suggest asking yourself a similar, but related question:

suppose d|(p-1). how many elements of Zpx are of order d?

hint: suppose a is of order d.

(i suppose i "should write" [a] instead of a. i mean the modulo class, NOT the integer)

look at the set {1,a,a2,...,ad-1}.

this is a cyclic group, how many generators does it have?

hint #2: eventually, you'll have to drag in the totient function into this. why did i suggest looking at those d that divide p-1?
 
Last edited:
Deveno said:
hint: suppose a is of order d.

(i suppose i "should write" [a] instead of a. i mean the modulo class, NOT the integer)

look at the set {1,a,a2,...,ad-1}.

this is a cyclic group, how many generators does it have?

Any element [itex]a^{r}[/itex] such that [itex]\gcd(r,d)=1[/itex] is a generator.
 
Kindayr said:
Any element [itex]a^{r}[/itex] such that [itex]\gcd(r,d)=1[/itex] is a generator.

yes, that is true. and how many of those "r's" are there?
 
hint #2: eventually, you'll have to drag in the totient function into this. why did i suggest looking at those d that divide p-1?

The size of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] is [itex]\phi (p)=p-1[/itex]
 
Deveno said:
yes, that is true. and how many of those "r's" are there?

[itex]\phi (d)[/itex] many.
 
  • #10
Kindayr said:
The size of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] is [itex]\phi (p)=p-1[/itex]

yes, that is also true, and you'll want to use that fact later on. how does "d" enter into this?

Kindayr said:
[itex]\phi (d)[/itex] many.

exactly! now...given any a of order d, how many "other elements" of order d, do we get "for free" along with it?

and...do you know of any way to relate φ(d) and φ(p-1)?
 
  • #11
Deveno said:
yes, that is also true, and you'll want to use that fact later on. how does "d" enter into this?
If we take [itex]d=p-1[/itex], then there are only [itex]\phi (p-1)[/itex] many generators of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Is this right?

do you know of any way to relate φ(d) and φ(p-1)

Since [itex]d|p-1[/itex], it follows that [itex]\phi(d)|\phi(p-1)[/itex]. Hence there exists [itex]k\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex] such that [itex]\phi(p-1)=k\phi(d)[/itex].
 
  • #12
Kindayr said:
If we take [itex]d=p-1[/itex], then there are only [itex]\phi (p-1)[/itex] many generators of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Is this right?

we only know that if we already know that there is in fact an element a of order p-1, which is what we're trying to prove!

we don't even know if there are any elements of order d, but if there are, how many must we have (at least)?

ok, let's step back for a minute, and see if you can glimpse where we're going:

every element of Zpx has SOME order, and we know that the order of any element has to divide p-1, by a theorem of Lagrange.

let's call the number of elements of order d, f(d).

so if the divisor list of p-1 is 1 = d1,d2,...,dk = p-1

p -1 = f(d1) + f(d2) +...+ f(dk)

[tex]= \sum_{d|p-1} f(d)[/tex]

for every d that divides p-1, f(d) is either ___ or _____ ?
 
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  • #13
Deveno said:
for every d that divides n, f(d) is either ___ or _____ ?
For every [itex]d|p-1[/itex], it follows that every [itex]f(d)[/itex] is either [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] or [itex]0[/itex], because we haven't verified the fact that there exists an element of order [itex]d[/itex] for each [itex]d|p-1[/itex].
 
  • #14
Kindayr said:
For every [itex]d|p-1[/itex], it follows that every [itex]f(d)[/itex] is either [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] or [itex]0[/itex], because we haven't verified the fact that there exists an element of order [itex]d[/itex] for each [itex]d|p-1[/itex].

great! glad to see you're still with me on this.

now, do you know the answer to this question?

[tex]\sum_{d|p-1} \varphi(d) = ?[/tex]
 
  • #15
Deveno said:
great! glad to see you're still with me on this.

now, do you know the answer to this question?

[tex]\sum_{d|p-1} \varphi(d) = ?[/tex]
Yep :)
[tex]\sum_{d|p-1}\phi(d)=p-1[/tex]
 
  • #16
and is it not true that for every d that divides p-1:

f(d) ≤ φ(d)?
 
  • #17
Deveno said:
and is it not true that for every d that divides p-1:

f(d) ≤ φ(d)?

Yep since [itex]f(d)[/itex] is either [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] or [itex]0[/itex]; both of which are less than or equal to [itex]\phi(d)[/itex]. And since [itex]\sum_{d|p-1}f(d)=\sum_{d|p-1}\phi(d)[/itex], it follows from the previous sentence that [itex]f(d)=\phi(d)[/itex]. So now we know that [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] is exactly the number of elements in [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] that have order [itex]d[/itex]. Hence, for each [itex]d|p-1[/itex], there exists exactly [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] many (which is non-zero) elements in [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] whose order is [itex]d[/itex].
 
  • #18
Kindayr said:
Yep since [itex]f(d)[/itex] is either [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] or [itex]0[/itex]; both of which are less than or equal to [itex]\phi(d)[/itex]. And since [itex]\sum_{d|p-1}f(d)=\sum_{d|p-1}\phi(d)[/itex], it follows from the previous sentence that [itex]f(d)=\phi(d)[/itex]. So now we know that [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] is exactly the number of elements in [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] that have order [itex]d[/itex]. Hence, for each [itex]d|p-1[/itex], there exists exactly [itex]\phi(d)[/itex] many (which is non-zero) elements in [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] whose order is [itex]d[/itex].

so now we've established existence for EVERY d that divides p-1. and one of those divisors is...?
 
  • #19
Deveno said:
so now we've established existence for EVERY d that divides p-1. and one of those divisors is...?

We can take [itex]d=p-1[/itex] and hence there exists [itex]\phi(p-1)[/itex] many elements of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] whose order is [itex]p-1[/itex]. But since the order of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] is [itex]p-1[/itex], it follows that these elements are exactly the generators of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence, we've show that there exists at least a single generator of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex].

So let [itex]a\in\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] be one of these generators. By Fermat's Little Theorem we have [itex]a^{p-1}\equiv 1[/itex] [itex]\mod {p}[/itex]. Hence there exists [itex]k\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex] such that [itex]a^{p-1}=1+kp[/itex].
 
  • #20
Kindayr said:
We can take [itex]d=p-1[/itex] and hence there exists [itex]\phi(p-1)[/itex] many elements of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] whose order is [itex]p-1[/itex]. But since the order of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex] is [itex]p-1[/itex], it follows that these elements are exactly the generators of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence, we've show that there exists at least a single generator of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex].

indeed, we've shown that there's usually a lot of generators.

there's just one more matter to clear up.

we know that there is some a with order p-1, so of course ap-1 = 1 + kp.

but...we haven't yet shown gcd(k,p) = 1. any thoughts?
 
  • #21
Deveno said:
but...we haven't yet shown gcd(k,p) = 1. any thoughts?

Well if [itex]1\le k<p[/itex], then clearly [itex]\gcd(k,n)=1[/itex]. But if [itex]p<k[/itex], then its not so clear.
 
  • #22
Kindayr said:
Well if [itex]1\le k<p[/itex], then clearly [itex]\gcd(k,n)=1[/itex]. But if [itex]p<k[/itex], then its not so clear.

true enough. but we haven't used all of the help we were given by the problem at the start.

p is an ODD prime. maybe that is important somehow...hmm, if p is odd, then p-1 is even, so:

ap-1 = 1 + kp

but p-1 = 2m, so:

(am)2 - 1 = kp

can you do anything with that?
 
  • #23
Deveno said:
true enough. but we haven't used all of the help we were given by the problem at the start.

p is an ODD prime. maybe that is important somehow...hmm, if p is odd, then p-1 is even, so:

ap-1 = 1 + kp

but p-1 = 2m, so:

(am)2 - 1 = kp

can you do anything with that?
Well we can say [itex]kp=(a^{m})^2-1=(a^{m}-1)(a^{m}+1)[/itex], or is there something that I'm missing?
 
  • #24
Kindayr said:
Well we can say [itex]kp=(a^{m})^2-1=(a^{m}-1)(a^{m}+1)[/itex], or is there something that I'm missing?

that's a good start. now what can we say about divisibility of the factors on the right by p, because p is prime?
 
  • #25
Deveno said:
that's a good start. now what can we say about divisibility of the factors on the right by p, because p is prime?

Either [itex]p|(a^{m}+1)[/itex] or [itex]p|(a^{m}-1)[/itex]. If it is the latter, then [itex]p|(a^{m}-1)[/itex] implies that [itex]a^{m}\equiv 1\mod p[/itex], but that would mean that the order of [itex]a[/itex] is [itex]m[/itex], which contradicts the fact that [itex]a[/itex] is a generator of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence, it must be that [itex]a^{m}\equiv -1\mod p[/itex].
 
  • #26
Kindayr said:
Either [itex]p|(a^{m}+1)[/itex] or [itex]p|(a^{m}-1)[/itex]. If it is the latter, then [itex]p|(a^{m}-1)[/itex] implies that [itex]a^{m}\equiv 1\mod p[/itex], but that would mean that the order of [itex]a[/itex] is [itex]m[/itex], which contradicts the fact that [itex]a[/itex] is a generator of [itex]\mathbb{Z}_{p}^{\times}[/itex]. Hence, it must be that [itex]a^{m}\equiv -1\mod p[/itex].


well, you know, that's ok, but the thing is, we don't really care which factor p divides, so long as we know that p divides one of them. the point is:

k = (am - 1)(am + 1)/p

we're trying to prove something about k, here: gcd(k,p) = 1.

could k be 0? well, that would mean one of our factors is 0, but surely a > 1.

and if 1 ≤ k < p, as you yourself already noted, gcd(k,p) = 1.

so if k ≥ p, the only way gcd(k,p) ≠ 1, is if p|k.

and that's what we want to show "can't happen".

now, for ANY positive integer n, and any ODD prime, can p divide both n and n+2?
 
  • #27
No, for any odd prime [itex]p[/itex] it is not the case for both [itex]p|n[/itex] and [itex]p|n+2[/itex], for any [itex]n\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex].
 
  • #28
I'm still stuck on your last hint :(
 
  • #29
OOOOOH

Since [itex]p[/itex] odd prime it follows that it cannot be that both [itex]p|a^{m}-1[/itex] and [itex]p|a^{m}+1[/itex]. I understand why we want to do this, but what if [itex]p^2|a^{m}+1[/itex]?
 
  • #30

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