Object causing another object to move with zero friction

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The discussion centers on a physics problem involving a frictionless system of objects connected by a string over a pulley. The main question raised is why the "main block" accelerates when there is no friction and the applied force is zero. Participants suggest analyzing the situation using free-body diagrams and the principles of Newton's second law and conservation of momentum. The tension in the string is identified as a key factor in the system's dynamics, acting in the direction opposite to the applied force. Understanding these concepts clarifies the motion of the blocks in the system.
EEristavi
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Homework Statement


This is the problem from the book "physics for scientists and engineers..." by Serway, Jewett / Chapter 5, problem 98

Initially, the system of objects shown in Figure P5.93 -
Img1.JPG

is held motionless. The pulley and all surfaces and wheels
are frictionless. Let the force F be zero and assume
that m1 can move only vertically. At the instant after
the system of objects is released, find (a) the tension T
in the string, (b) the acceleration of m2, (c) the acceleration
of M, and (d) the acceleration of m1. (Note: The
pulley accelerates along with the cart.)

Figure P5.93 description:
there is a block with mass M, above it - another block is placed (with the mass m2), and this is connected to the block-m1 by string (over the pulley)
Note: There is an attached the image also.

Homework Equations


Newton's second law

The Attempt at a Solution


My only question is:
Why does the "main block" accelerates - if we don't have a friction and F=0

my guess is that, there is a mistake

am I right or wrong (if wrong why)?
 

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Draw a freebody diagram for the pulley. And think about Conservation of Momentum
 
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Likes EEristavi
I see...
Is it T (tension of the string) - acting horizontally "backwards"?
 
Is it T (tension of the string) - acting horizontally "backwards"?

Yes, if "backwards" is the direction that F is pointing.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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