Obtain Taylor Series at x0 = 0?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the possibility of obtaining a Taylor series for the function f(x) = (x^4 / (x^5 + 1))^(1/2) at x0 = 0. Participants are exploring the differentiability of the function at this point and its implications for the Taylor series.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question whether the function is differentiable at x = 0, with references to derivatives and continuity. Others suggest that the function may have a Maclaurin series despite concerns about differentiability.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants presenting differing views on the differentiability of the function at x = 0. Some mention external tools like Wolfram Alpha that provide a Taylor series approximation, while others challenge the assumptions about differentiability.

Contextual Notes

There are references to the continuity of the function and its derivatives at x = 0, as well as a mention of a potential issue at x0 = 1, indicating that the discussion may involve multiple points of interest regarding differentiability.

PeteSampras
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Homework Statement


Is it possible obtain a Taylor serie at x0=0?

Homework Equations


f(x)= (\frac{x^4}{x^5+1})^{1/2}[/B]

The Attempt at a Solution


I think that it is not possible , since f' is not differenciable at x=0, since f' have the factor

(\frac{x^4}{x^5+1})^{-1/2}

but, for example wolfram yield a solution f approx x2

http://www.wolframalpha.com/widget/...0&podSelect=&showAssumptions=1&showWarnings=1
 
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Isn't it when ##x_0 = 1## that is the problem where it's not differentiable?
 
PeteSampras said:

Homework Statement


Is it possible obtain a Taylor serie at x0=0?

Homework Equations


f(x)= (\frac{x^4}{x^5+1})^{1/2}[/B]

The Attempt at a Solution


I think that it is not possible , since f' is not differenciable at x=0, since f' have the factor
f is continuous at 0, f' is continuous at 0, f'' is continuous at 0...
The function you're working with definitely has a Maclaurin series (i.e., a Taylor series in powers of x).
PeteSampras said:
 
I think that it is not possible , since f' is not differenciable at x=0, since f' have the factor

(x4/x5+1)−1/2

If you complete the calculation of f' by the chain rule, I think you'l find that factor isn't a problem.
 

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