- #1
Bacle
- 662
- 1
Hi, everyone:
Given a top space X, and a homeo. h: X--->X , we get an induced map
(by functoriality ) h_*: Pi_1(X)---> Pi_1(X) . We can also write
the map as a map g: Aut(X) --->Hom(Pi_1(X),Pi_1(X))
Is the map g always surjective.? . Almost definitely not injective, since
the Fund. Group functor is constant on homotopic maps, but I have no idea
how to tell if it is injective.
I have no idea. Anyone know.?
Thanks
Given a top space X, and a homeo. h: X--->X , we get an induced map
(by functoriality ) h_*: Pi_1(X)---> Pi_1(X) . We can also write
the map as a map g: Aut(X) --->Hom(Pi_1(X),Pi_1(X))
Is the map g always surjective.? . Almost definitely not injective, since
the Fund. Group functor is constant on homotopic maps, but I have no idea
how to tell if it is injective.
I have no idea. Anyone know.?
Thanks