(open) The most basic math proof I've ever seen

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on Euclid's proof regarding the infinitude of prime numbers, which is presented as a simple yet profound mathematical argument. The proof demonstrates that for any finite set of primes, one can construct a number that cannot be divisible by any of the primes in that set, thereby proving that the set cannot contain all prime numbers. Key assumptions include the understanding of prime numbers and the concept of indirect proof and proof by contradiction. The discussion also touches on the educational aspects of teaching this proof to young children.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of prime numbers and their properties
  • Familiarity with indirect proof and proof by contradiction
  • Basic multiplication skills, ideally up to 10x10
  • Knowledge of mathematical logic and assumptions in proofs
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  • Explore the concept of indirect proof in mathematics
  • Study proof by contradiction with examples from number theory
  • Learn about Euclid's other contributions to mathematics
  • Investigate the educational methods for teaching mathematical concepts to children
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Mathematicians, educators, and anyone interested in foundational mathematical proofs and teaching methodologies for complex concepts to young learners.

fresh_42
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Well, it is what I consider the most basic proof I've ever seen. I like it for several reasons: it is so simple. that you can convince a preschool kid, it uses one of the most fundamental principles at all: you cannot derive false from true, and it is old enough to count as such:

No, sorry kids, not Pythagoras. Euclid's (##\approx 300\, BC##) proof about the number of primes.

For any finite set ##\{p_1,\ldots,p_r\}## of primes, consider the number ##n = p_1p_2 \cdots p_r + 1.## This ##n## has a prime divisor ##p##. But ##p## is not one of the ##p_k## : otherwise ##p## would be a divisor of ##n## and of the product ##p_1p_2 \cdots p_r##, and thus also of the difference ##n − p_1p_2 \cdots p_r = 1,## which is impossible. So a finite set ##\{p_1,\ldots,p_r\}## cannot be the collection of all prime numbers.

Can you phrase the statement which is proven, and rephrase this proof, such that
  • it is clearly an indirect proof
  • it is clearly a proof by contradiction
Can you tell the tiny difference? It is not a difference in logic, but in wording.

Can you find all the hidden assumptions in the above proof?
Hint: There are many.
 
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One thing I noticed is a preschool kid is going to ask you what a prime number is but maybe a fourth-grader will understand.

The set of primes is assumed to have all primes in the interval of 2 thru n right? so in this case, if 2 were missing then the prime product+1 would be even implying 2 is missing from the set.
 
jedishrfu said:
One thing I noticed is a preschool kid is going to ask you what a prime number is but maybe a fourth-grader will understand.

The set of primes is assumed to have all primes in the interval of 2 thru n right? so in this case, if 2 were missing then the prime product+1 would be even implying 2 is missing from the set.
Yes, preschool was a bit ambitious. I didn't know the English term for the first 4 school years. As soon as they know how to multiply small numbers, this proof can be taught. Maybe with a bit more effort than the one above, but it is basically possible,

No, the set of primes could be any. Only finiteness is required.
 
jedishrfu said:
In the US, multiplication tables up to 10x10 are taught in fourth grade (my own experience circa 1960s)

However, according to this article its now 3rd grade that gets kids into multiplication.

https://www.verywellfamily.com/what-your-child-will-learn-grade-guide-620869
The age doesn't play a role as long as curiosity on the child's side and patience on the adult's sde is there. I once taught a six year old negative numbers and by seven she could solve ##\sqrt{-4}##.
 
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Cantor's diagonal argument.
 
Every number has a prime divisor is one of the assumptions.
 

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