Orthogonal theoretical question

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transgalactic
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V is a space of inner muliplication.
W1 and W2 are two subspaces of V, so dimW1<dimW2
prove that there is a vector
[tex] 0\neq v\epsilon W_2[/tex]
which is orthogonal to W1
??
 
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i got this solution:
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
i can't see why its correcti don't know that all the vectors of W1 exist in W2 too
??
 
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Since dim(W1)<dim(W2) you can find a nonzero vector v in W2 which is not an element of W1. Use the orthogonal projection onto W1 to construct, from v, a vector which is orthogonal to W1.
 
its a theoretical question i can't construct projections
the only way is if this "
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
"

if all the vectors of W1 exist in W2
which wasnt gisnt given that
??
 
transgalactic said:
its a theoretical question i can't construct projections

What I am trying to tell you is this: If V is an inner product space and W is subspace, then any vector can be written as a sum v=w+n where w is in W and n is in the orthogonal complement of W. In fact, w is the projection of v to W. So, assuming that v is not an element of W, then n will be nonzero and orthogonal to W.
Usings these facts you will be able to solve the problem.

the only way is if this "
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
"

if all the vectors of W1 exist in W2
which wasnt gisnt given that
??

You do not need W1 to be a subspace of W2.
 
whats
"V is an inner product space "
??
 
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i am trying to imagine what you are telling
but its so abstract
??
 
suppose we have a four dimensional space
W={(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0)}
W complement is ={(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)}
w is subspace of W
n is subspace of W complement
v could be written as w+n
but for that W and W complement must be independent to one another

we haven't been told that
we have been told that
dim W2>dim W1

so there could a case were W2 has all the vectors of W1 and there is another subspace

so not every vector could be written as a manipulation of W2 and W1
??
 
transgalactic said:
whats
"V is an inner product space "
??

A http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inner_product_space" , I am assuming this is what you mean by "a space of inner multiplication".

transgalactic said:
suppose we have a four dimensional space
W={(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0)}
W complement is ={(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)}
w is subspace of W
n is subspace of W complement
v could be written as w+n
but for that W and W complement must be independent to one another

we haven't been told that
we have been told that
dim W2>dim W1

so there could a case were W2 has all the vectors of W1 and there is another subspace

so not every vector could be written as a manipulation of W2 and W1
??

I am not sure what you mean here, I will try to explain it differently.

What you are given: [tex]W_1[/tex], [tex]W_2[/tex] are subspaces of [tex]V[/tex] with [tex]\dim(W_1)<\dim(W_2)[/tex].
Let's put [tex]n=\dim(V)[/tex], [tex]n_1=\dim(W_1)[/tex], [tex]n_2=\dim(W_2)[/tex].

So [tex]\dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex].

But this means that there are nonzero vectors in [tex]W_2[/tex] which are orthogonal to [tex]W_1[/tex].

I hope you can fill in the details, specifically, why the inequality I wrote is true.
 
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i can't understanf how did you constract this equation
[tex] \dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex]
if[tex](W_1^{\perp}=n-n_1[/tex] and [tex]n_2=dim(W2)[/tex]
so the intersect is subtraction of the two groups
it should be
[tex]W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2=n-n_1-n_2[/tex]

and why
you add =>1
??
 
transgalactic said:
i can't understanf how did you constract this equation
[tex] \dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex]

I am using the following formula: If A,B are subspaces of V then

[tex]\dim(A+B)+\dim(A\cap B)=\dim(A)+\dim(B)[/tex]

and

[tex]\dim(A+B)\le\dim(V)[/tex]

if[tex](W_1^{\perp}=n-n_1[/tex] and [tex]n_2=dim(W2)[/tex]
so the intersect is subtraction of the two groups
it should be
[tex]W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2=n-n_1-n_2[/tex]

and why
you add =>1
??

If dim(V)>0 then V contains nonzero vectors.


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