Is a Vector Orthogonal to a Set Also Orthogonal to Its Span?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of orthogonality in an inner product space, specifically examining whether a vector that is orthogonal to a set of vectors is also orthogonal to every vector in their span.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definition of orthogonality and the nature of elements in the span of a set of vectors. There is a discussion about whether being orthogonal to the original vectors implies orthogonality to their linear combinations.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, questioning assumptions, and clarifying definitions. Some have suggested examining the properties of inner products to simplify the reasoning about orthogonality with respect to linear combinations.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on working within the framework of real numbers, as the discussion is situated in a basic linear algebra context.

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Homework Statement


Let V be an inner product space. Show that if w is orthogonal to each of the vectors
u1,u2,...,ur, then it is orthogonal to every vector in the span{u1,u2,...,ur}.


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The Attempt at a Solution


Not sure how to show this, if w is orthogonal to every vector u1,u2,...,ur, wouldn't w already be orthogonal to the spanning set?

The spanning set is a subspace of the subspace of the inner product space of V.

Am I suppose to show it symbolically?
 
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Two things to consider:

(1) What is the definition of orthogonality?
(2) What does a general element of ##\text{span}\{u_1, \ldots,u_r\}## look like?
 
jbunniii said:
Two things to consider:

(1) What is the definition of orthogonality?
(2) What does a general element of ##\text{span}\{u_1, \ldots,u_r\}## look like?

So for orthogonality two vectors in an inner product space are orthogonal if (in this case) the vectors <u, w> = 0.

A spanning set is just the set of all linear combinations of the vectors in V.

So for the spanning set w = k1u1 + k2u2,...,krur

which becomes

0 = k1u1 + k2u2,...,krur

so the only difference between w being orthogonal with u1,u2,...,ur is that there is some scalar k that's been thrown into the mix?
 
mpittma1 said:
So for orthogonality two vectors in an inner product space are orthogonal if (in this case) the vectors <u, w> = 0.
OK.

A spanning set is just the set of all linear combinations of the vectors in V.

So for the spanning set w = k1u1 + k2u2,...,krur
Well, the right hand side is a general element of the span, so that's good. But we want to check whether ##w## is orthogonal to this element, we don't want to set ##w## equal to this element. So to avoid confusion, let's give the general element a new name, say ##v = k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r##. Now you want to check whether ##w## is orthogonal to ##v##. So what is ##\langle w, v \rangle##?
 
jbunniii said:
OK.


Well, the right hand side is a general element of the span, so that's good. But we want to check whether ##w## is orthogonal to this element, we don't want to set ##w## equal to this element. So to avoid confusion, let's give the general element a new name, say ##v = k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r##. Now you want to check whether ##w## is orthogonal to ##v##. So what is ##\langle w, v \rangle##?

##\langle w, v \rangle## = ku1w+ku2w+...+kurw =0

then after saying that, if k was the zero vector it proves that to be true
 
mpittma1 said:
##\langle w, v \rangle## = ku1w+ku2w+...+kurw =0

then after saying that, if k was the zero vector it proves that to be true
No, you don't need ##k## to be the zero vector. Let's take a step back.
$$\langle w,v \rangle = \langle w, k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r\rangle = ?$$
What properties of the inner product do you know that can help to simplify this? The goal is to get an expression involving ##\langle w, u_i\rangle## for ##i=1, \ldots, r##.
 
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jbunniii said:
No, you don't need ##k## to be the zero vector. Let's take a step back.
$$\langle w,v \rangle = \langle w, k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r\rangle = ?$$
What properties of the inner product do you know that can help to simplify this? The goal is to get an expression involving ##\langle w, u_i\rangle## for ##i=1, \ldots, r##.

Properties of inner products say the scalar k can be brought out as such k<w,u>

so we could say k<w, ui> = 0 for k ε R and for i = 1, 2, ... r

then at this point the value of k doesn't matter because i have already said that <w, ui> = 0 for i = 1, 2, ... r.

Please correct me if I am wrong, I think I am starting to see it.

I
 
mpittma1 said:
Properties of inner products say the scalar k can be brought out as such k<w,u>

so we could say k<w, ui> = 0 for k ε R and for i = 1, 2, ... r

then at this point the value of k doesn't matter because i have already said that <w, ui> = 0 for i = 1, 2, ... r.

Please correct me if I am wrong, I think I am starting to see it.
Yes, that's right. You also need one more fact, namely:
$$\langle w, k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r \rangle = \langle w, k_1 u_1 \rangle + \ldots + \langle w, k_r u_r \rangle$$
Now you can apply your step of sliding the ##k_i##'s out of the inner product, and use the fact that ##\langle w, u_i \rangle = 0## as you said.

One small detail: in case you happen to be working with complex numbers, the ##k_i##'s get conjugated if you move them from the second position in the inner product. So:
$$\langle w, k_i u_i \rangle = \overline{k_i} \langle w, u_i\rangle$$
But if you move them from the first position then there is no conjugate:
$$\langle k_i u_i, w \rangle = k_i \langle u_i, w \rangle$$
If the ##k_i##'s are real numbers, then it doesn't make any difference, since the conjugate of ##k_i## is just ##k_i##.
 
jbunniii said:
Yes, that's right. You also need one more fact, namely:
$$\langle w, k_1 u_1 + \ldots + k_r u_r \rangle = \langle w, k_1 u_1 \rangle + \ldots + \langle w, k_r u_r \rangle$$
Now you can apply your step of sliding the ##k_i##'s out of the inner product, and use the fact that ##\langle w, u_i \rangle = 0## as you said.

One small detail: in case you happen to be working with complex numbers, the ##k_i##'s get conjugated if you move them from the second position in the inner product. So:
$$\langle w, k_i u_i \rangle = \overline{k_i} \langle w, u_i\rangle$$
But if you move them from the first position then there is no conjugate:
$$\langle k_i u_i, w \rangle = k_i \langle u_i, w \rangle$$
If the ##k_i##'s are real numbers, then it doesn't make any difference, since the conjugate of ##k_i## is just ##k_i##.

This is a basic linear algebra course so we only work with real values. But thank you so much for all your help, I truly understand this now!
 

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